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Exam Code: ST0-136
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec System Recovery 2011 Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 111 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A virus attack has corrupted the first sector of a physical hard drive. Fortunately, a recovery point of the
system drive is available to restore with the Symantec Recovery Disk.
Which option must be selected during the restore?
A. Restore master boot record
B. Use Restore Anyware
C. Check for file system errors after recovery
D. Verify recovery point before recovery
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which command line option would be used to divide a recovery point file into separate parts using
Symantec System Recovery 2011 Linux Edition?
A. -raw [number]
B. -seg (number)
C. -span (number]
D. -set (number]
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator of the Symantec System Recovery 2011 (SSR) Management Solution needs to
determine which managed client computers have an unsupported version of SSR installed.
Which web part name of the Home screen would display this for the administrator?
A. Alerts and Failures
B. Backup Status
C. Operating System Statistics
D. License Status
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which requirement needs to tie met, to create a cold backup from a non-functioning system using the
Symantec Recovery Disk?
A. An active partition must be set
B. A valid license key for Symantec System Recovery 2011 needs to be used.
C. The computer needs to first have Symantec System Recovery 2011 installed.
D. A custom Symantec Recovery Disk needs to be used.
Answer: B

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NO.5 how do the client computers process backup policies submitted by the Symantec System Recovery
2011 Management Solution?
A. The Notification Server pushes the backup jobs totheclient computers beforeeachbackup
B. Client computers pun the backup policies down from Notification server and processthem.
C. Client computers run the backup policies from Notification Server and process them,
D. The Notification Server pushes the backup jobs to the client computers every night
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which option should be used to convert a recovery point where a FAT32 file system Is the
destination1?
A. Run windows Mint-Setup
B. Utilize temporary storage location
C. Split virtual disk into 2 GB (vmdk) files
D. Rename file to DOS standard
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which command can be run to allow network access to the computer during a Unix-based recovery
from a Symantec Recovery Disk.?
A. network eth0start
B. ifup
C. service network up
D. eth0service restart
Answer: B

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NO.8 Consider the command syntax below
ssr -r <file> -d <destination>
What does the switch -r accomplish in Symantec System Recovery 2011 Linux Edition?
A. searches the recovery point for a specific file
B. restoresthespecified file to a location
C. lists the partition and file types In the recovery point
D. reboots the computer when the restore is complete
Answer: D

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NO.9 To prevent unauthorized access to recovery points when stored on a network share, what should be
enabled in the Job definition?
A. T-10 encryption
B. Pretty GoodPrivacy(PGP) encryption
C. SymantecEndpointEncryption
D. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) encryption
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which two options are required to enable booting when using the Recover Drive Wizard to restore the
operating system onto a new, empty, hard disk? (Select two)
A. Resize drive
B. Check file system for errors
C. Assign drive letter
D. Restore original disk signature
E. Set drive active
F. Verify recovery point before restore
Answer: D,E

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NO.11 Which two drive types can be used as the destination drive in die Copy My Hard Drive Wizard? (Select
two)
A. SATA attached hard drive
B. share on a different Windows Server
C. Blu-ray drive
D. network-attached storage
E. USB attached hard drive
Answer: A,E

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NO.12 A system administrator would like to verify whether a recent virus on their network exists In an image
before restoring. What is the recommended method to make the flies available for a virus scan to check
for this?
A. Restore the image to the machine, then run a virus scan.
B. Mount the Image In Windows and run a virus scan.
C. Restore files to an isolated directory using Recovery Point Browser
D. Use Google Desktop to access the files.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which software should De installed on the remote client first to be managed by Symantec System
Recovery 2011 (SSR) Management Solution?
A. Symantec SSR software
B. Symantec installation Manager
C. Symantec SSR plug-in
D. Symantec Management (Altiris) Agent
Answer: D

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NO.14 when viewing the backup status of a computer in Symantec System Recovery 2011 Management
Solution, which two Backup, reporting statuses can a user view for the selected drives? (Select two.)
A. Full Status Reporting
B. DriveStatus Reporting
C. Group Status Reporting
D. Backup Status Reporting
E. No Status Reporting
Answer: A,E

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NO.15 Which wizard should an administrator select from the Symantec Recovery Disk to Degin a Virtual to
Physical conversion?
A. virtual Machine Restore
B. One Time Physical Conversion
C. Convert to Physical
D. Recover My Computer
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-118
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 10.0 for Exchange Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 318 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which two Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company to
maintain information? (Select two.)
A. Data compression
B. Collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. Storage on WORM devices
E. PST Migration
Answer: AC

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NO.2 What is an Enterprise Vault site?
A. a SQL database for system-wide configuration
B. a geographic configuration reference
C. a collection of policies, servers, and storage
D. a grouping of Active Directory domain controllers
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: ACD

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NO.4 A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users. Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions
should be installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B

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NO.5 Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What is a benefit of changing the
default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

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NO.6 A large enterprise organization requires monitoring. The company will have five Enterprise Vault (EV)
sites and three EV Directories. How many monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.7 An organization uses three Exchange Servers in a single domain and two Enterprise Vault (EV)
servers. How many Provisioning Tasks are required?
A. one per Exchange domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange Server
D. one per EV site
Answer: A

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NO.8 In which two ways does Optimized Single Instance Storage (OSIS) save storage space? (Select two.)
A. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in the same sharing boundary.
B. SIS identifies the SIS part from the filename.
C. Attachments are stored once within a sharing boundary.
D. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in different sharing boundaries.
E. Attachments are stored only once in a different sharing boundary.
Answer: AC

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NO.9 What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users.? (Select
three.)
A. extends the archived mail availability
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. provides remote access to archived public folder items
D. unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV services
Answer: ABC.

NO.10 An organization has five Enterprise Vault (EV) servers. The servers are part of one Directory and two
EV sites. The Directory consists of two Vault Store Groups with two Vault Stores for each group. How
many EV Directory database(s), Fingerprint database(s), and Vault Store database(s) are in the
environment, respectively?
A. 2, 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 1, 4
D. 2, 2, 2
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is a benefit of archiving email?
A. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
B. provides a duplicate backup system of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. provides high availability of email
Answer: A

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NO.12 An organization has a security requirement to track changes made to the Enterprise Vault (EV)
environment pertaining to retention categories, archiving policies, and archive permissions. Which tool
provides this data?
A. EV Auditing
B. EV Operation Monitor
C. EV Reporting
D. EV Event Log
Answer: A

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NO.13 Given a multi-site installation, which Enterprise Vault (EV) component contains the configuration
information for all the EV sites?
A. Vault Store database
B. Vault Store Group database
C. Vault Directory database
D. Vault Configuration database
Answer: C

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NO.14 From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook profiles
B. Tape libraries
C. UNIX servers
D. Windows servers
E. Remote client workstations
Answer: ADE.

NO.15 Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A. Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B. Exchange Managed Folders
C. Exchange Management Shell
D. Exchange Dumpster
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which three are core Enterprise Vault services? (Select three.)
A. Archiving Service
B. Placeholder Service
C. Directory Service
D. Storage Service
E. Indexing Service
Answer: CDE

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NO.17 What is the function of the Task Controller Service in Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. to interface between other EV tasks and the directory database
B. to manage EV storage of archived data
C. to support the Web Access application
D. to maintain indexes of archived data and to provide results of search requests
E. to manage the various archiving tasks to archive data from targets
Answer: E

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NO.18 What is the purpose of the Enterprise Vault Directory Service?
A. to provide service access to Vault Stores and Archives
B. to manage indexes of archived data
C. to manage selected items to be restored
D. to provide services access to site configuration information
Answer: D

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NO.19 Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook Delegates permissions
B. Exchange Public Folder permissions
C. Outlook Folder permissions
D. Domain Administrative permissions
E. Outlook Address Book permissions
Answer: ABC.

NO.20 Which component is directly below the Enterprise Vault Directory in the Vault Administration console's
hierarchy?
A. Vault Store Groups
B. Enterprise Vault Targets
C. Enterprise Vault Sites
D. Enterprise Vault Servers
Answer: C

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NO.21 An administrator is installing Enterprise Vault (EV). Where should the installer place the EV databases
and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.22 What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: BC

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NO.23 Which two core databases should an administrator allocate storage for during the Enterprise Vault
initial installation? (Select two.)
A. Vault Directory Database
B. Vault Store Database
C. Audit Database
D. Monitoring Database
E. Log Database
Answer: AD

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NO.24 In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A. Traditional Chinese
B. Danish
C. Portuguese
D. Finnish
E. Hebrew
Answer: ABE

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NO.25 An organization has two Enterprise Vault sites. Site 1 contains EVServer01, EVServer02, and
EVServer03 Site 2 contains EVServer04 and EVServer05. Which three USL failover options are possible?
(Select three.)
A. EVServer01 failover to EVServer03
B. EVServer02 failover to EVServer01
C. EVServer02 failover to EVServer04
D. EVServer03 failover to EVServer04
E. EVServer04 failover to EVServer05
Answer: ABE

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NO.26 A global organization plans to deploy Enterprise Vault (EV). The organization has a severe limit on the
connectivity between two sites. Site A supports seven remote offices and Site B supports five remote
offices. A global deployment of EV is unrealistic. How should the organization design around this
obstacle?
A. deploy multiple EV Directories
B. deploy multiple EV sites that share a single directory
C. deploy all EV servers in Site A
D. place the EV Directory database halfway between the sites
Answer: A

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NO.27 What are two valid reasons for specifying DNS aliases? (Select two.)
A. to ensure that the Enterprise Vault (EV) server can be joined to the Windows domain
B. to simplify reconfiguration of the EV infrastructure
C. to ensure that the EV server can be contacted from external domains
D. to make it possible to use the EV built-in failover mechanisms
E. to broadcast the EV server's IP address to all clients on the network
Answer: BD

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NO.28 There are multiple Active Directory domains with Exchange servers in each domain. One Enterprise
Vault (EV) server is set up in one domain. Trust is established between the EV domain and the other
domains. What must be done in order for a single EV server to archive the Exchange servers?
A. break the trust between the Active Directory domains
B. configure the EV client to allow trusted domains
C. select the domain boxes in the Archiving Task properties
D. add the Active Directory domains under the Targets container
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which two databases are directly associated with Stores in Enterprise Vault?
A. Directory and Monitoring
B. Partition and Vault Store
C. Directory and Vault Store
D. Fingerprint and Vault Store
Answer: D

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NO.30 An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying
different archiving strategies. Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving
strategies using Enterprise Vault (EV)?
A. The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy
and moves the users into these groups.
B. The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C. The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy
Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D. The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default
policy for everyone else.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 250-530
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Network Access Control 12.1 )
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Total Q&A: 110 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 On a LAN Enforcer, which command shows the switch action table decisions in real time?
A. show spm
B. show auth live
C. show kernel live
D. show action live
Answer: C

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NO.2 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has created a custom requirement to remediate an operating system patch. The custom
requirement appears to be working intermittently with clients that fail the patch installation, passing the
requirement anyway. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The logic is missing a Fail result.
B. The logic is missing an ELSE statement.
C. The logic has an extra Pass result.
D. The logic needs an additional IF/THEN item.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What will happen if a user switches to a location with a different Host Integrity policy while a Host
Integrity check is in progress?
A. The Host Integrity check will fail and the client will be denied network access.
B. The client will stop the check and the user may get a timeout if attempting to reach remediation
resources.
C. The client is permitted guest access to the quarantine network until the next scheduled Host Integrity
check.
D. The Host Integrity check always completes prior to moving between locations.
Answer: B

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NO.4 An organization with a Gateway Enforcer behind a VPN concentrator that is performing NAT,
determines that clients are being blocked. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The client is missing from the MAC Address Bypass list.
B. The IP address of the internal interface of the VPN connector needs to be added to the Trusted
External IP Address list.
C. The Enforcer is placed in the wrong physical location on the network.
D. Static routes need to be added to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager to pass the client traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.5 How can an administrator provide computers on a quarantine VLAN with access to remediation
materials without using static routes?
A. Assign a virtual IP address to the NIC on the remediation server and add it to the quarantine VLAN.
B. Create a static route from the quarantine VLAN to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager in the
Enforcer command line interface.
C. Multi-home the remediation server and connect one NIC to a port assigned to the quarantine VLAN.
D. Put a wireless access point on the quarantine VLAN to provide wireless access to quarantined clients.
Answer: C

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NO.6 How does Symantec Network Access Control handle location switching compared to Symantec
Endpoint Protection?
A. It uses a reverse logic structure.
B. It excludes locations.
C. It uses locations instead of groups.
D. It handles locations in the same way.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which log contains IP address, connection attempt, port information, and the direction of the
connection?
A. Enforcer Client log
B. Enforcer Kernel log
C. Enforcer Traffic log
D. Enforcer Packet log
Answer: C

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NO.8 When would the Enforcer need to be reset to factory defaults?
A. to change the type of Enforcer
B. to upgrade the Enforcer
C. to purge any errors on the Enforcer
D. to purge all logs from the Enforcer
Answer: A

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NO.9 At the Enforcer (debug)# prompt, which command enables the most detailed level of debugging?
A. level engineer
B. level verbose
C. level fine
D. level error
Answer: A

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NO.10 An organization has deployed Symantec Network Access Control with LAN Enforcer. Historically, all
clients were Windows based endpoints. Now, Linux endpoints that authenticate with Microsoft Active
Directory will need to be authenticated through the LAN Enforcer. Which entry needs to be added to the
Switch Profile Action table to open the port for Linux endpoints once they have been authenticated
through Active Directory user credentials?
A. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Pass, Policy Check: Pass, Action: Open Port
B. Host Authentication: Fail, User Authentication: Fail, Policy Check: Ignore, Action: Close Port
C. Host Authentication: Unavailable, User Authentication:Pass, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Open
Port
D. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Unavailable, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Close
Port
Answer: C

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NO.11 An organization's security policy requires Host Integrity checks to run only when the client is
connecting through a VPN concentrator whose internal interface is attached to a Gateway Enforcer.
Which setting should be configured to only check Host Integrity on these external clients, but not check
clients on the local network?
A. Apply the Host Integrity agent to the external computers only.
B. Add the IP addresses of the internal clients that need not be checked to the "Trusted Internal IP
Address Range".
C. Select "Only do Host-Integrity checking through the Gateway or DHCP Enforcer".
D. Block port UDP 39999 on the client firewalls of the internal clients, so that they cannot be challenged
by the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.12 How can access be permitted to remediation services when a client fails the Host Integrity check using
a Gateway Enforcer?
A. Add the client's IP address to the Trusted External IP Address List.
B. Add the client's MAC Address to the Mac Address Bypass table.
C. Add the IP addresses of the hosts to the Trusted Internal IP Address List.
D. Add the client to the Allowed Client table on the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What are the correct connection settings for a serial connection?
A. Data Bits: 8; Parity: none; Stop Bits: 1
B. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 1
C. Data Bits: 8; Parity: even; Stop Bits: 1
D. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 2
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which default port must a firewall administrator open to enable communication between an Enforcer
and the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. 1433
B. 1812
C. 8443
D. 8080
Answer: B

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NO.15 In an Enforcer command line interface, which filter is used to capture communication traffic between an
Enforcer and a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. auth
B. client
C. query
D. spm
Answer: D

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NO.16 A Host Integrity policy has a complex custom conditional check that has three IF THEN statements, two
of which have ELSE statements. How many ENDIF statements are required?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.17 When a Gateway Enforcer is being deployed, which port needs to be kept open between the clients
and the Enforcer?
A. TCP 1812
B. TCP 39999
C. UDP 39999
D. UDP 1812
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which protocol is used to transfer packet captures from an Enforcer?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TFTP
D. SFTP
Answer: C

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NO.19 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs a custom requirement to run a script if a file does not exist. Which modification to
the logic shown in the exhibit performs this functionality?
A. Add a nested AND/OR statement to run a script after the END IF.
B. Add a nested result to run a script after the Pass.
C. Use an OR modifier to run a script after the IF.
D. Use an ELSE statement to run a script after the THEN.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which packets are periodically sent from an Enforcer to find other Enforcers on the network?
A. Failover
B. Discover
C. ARP
D. OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which two are explanations of why auto-location switching may be useful for Host Integrity? (Select
two.)
A. It can define different Remediation sources, based on location.
B. It can enable different Antivirus features, based on location.
C. It can choose different Firewall rule sets, based on location.
D. It can select different Host Integrity checks, based on location
E. It can enable different LiveUpdate features, based on location.
Answer: A,D

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NO.22 What should an administrator do to obtain additional information about Host Integrity checking for a
newly implemented Host Integrity policy?
A. Create a customized computer status report on the management server.
B. Enable the reporting of additional log events on the client systems.
C. Set verbose logging on the Host Integrity policy.
D. Enable debug logging on the enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.23 A guest is unable to download the On-Demand client. The guest is running Windows 7 64-bit and
connecting with the Mozilla Firefox browser. The computer has 512 MB RAM and 50 MB free disk space.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The guest's system has insufficient disk space.
B. The guest's browser is unsupported.
C. The guest's operating system is unsupported.
D. The guest's system has insufficient RAM.
Answer: A

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NO.24 The 802.1x protocol has three major components: Supplicant, Authenticator and Authentication Server.
Which elements serve each of these components when Symantec Network Access Control is being
configured to use LAN Enforcement?
A. Supplicant: Symantec Endpoint Protection Client,
Authenticator: Symantec LAN Enforcer,
Authentication Server: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller
B. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: 802.1x Enabled Switch,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
C. Supplicant: Network Access Control Client,
Authenticator: Symantec Endpoint Protection Policy Manager,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
D. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller,
Authentication Server: Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
Answer: B

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NO.25 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether "a product is installed" on
a client machine?
A. check the registry keys to see if the product is installed
B. check the service snap-in to see if the product is installed
C. check the policy document to see if the product is installed
D. check the IT documentation to see if the product is installed
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control compliance?
A. It ensures that endpoints, such as clients and servers, meet specific administrator-defined
requirements.
B. It ensures the management of a secure client endpoint through the creation and implementation of
group policies.
C. It provides services needed by a client to bring itself up to spec in order to gain access to network
resources.
D. It provides clients with the ability to configure and deliver content and product updates to other clients
in the same topological location.
Answer: B

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NO.28 Refer to the exhibit.
A Symantec Network Access Control administrator is trying to implement two Gateway Enforcers in
failover mode. The administrator has implemented the two Enforcers in the network as shown in the
exhibit. After starting both Gateway Enforcers, the administrator finds that both Enforcers are in active
mode. What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The failover configuration is missing.
B. The router is blocking multicast traffic.
C. The administrator failed to configure the Enforcers in Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. The Gateway Enforcers are configured in the same Gateway Enforcer group.
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which two databases are supported when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager is being configured?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle Database 11g
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005, SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Express, SP1
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
E. MySQL Database 5.5
Answer: B,D

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NO.30 What is the default time interval for Host Integrity checks?
A. Continuous
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-148
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX Technical Assessment )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 109 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which command resizes the file system without changing the volume size?
A. tunefs
B. vxresize
C. fsadm
D. vxfsadm
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which region stores the information that manages virtual devices when a LUN is brought under Veritas
Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX control?
A. private region
B. VTOC region
C. virtual region
D. public region
Answer: A

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NO.3 A Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disk named Disk_4 has been removed from the datadg disk group.
Which command is used to remove this disk from Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) control?
A. vxdisk -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
B. vxdiskunsetup Disk_4
C. vxdg -g datadg rmdisk Disk_4
D. vxdisksetup -r Disk_4
Answer: B

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NO.4 A system with a single, locally mounted file system loses power and is subsequently restarted. All
hardware is functioning properly and the intent log is valid. The administrator then mounts the file system
using the mount command. What is the expected behavior.?
A. Mount will replay the intent log.
B. Mount prints an error stating that a fsck log replay will be required.
C. Mount succeeds silently as normal.
D. Mount prints an error message stating that a full fsck will be required.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What enables combining disks or LUNs into logical collections to make administration easier?
A. volume
B. plex
C. subdisk
D. disk group
Answer: D

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NO.6 A user creates a 10MB file, which is then compressed using vxcompress to reduce the file size to 1MB.
Another user copies this file to a different Veritas File System (VxFS) on the same host using cp. What is
the resulting file size of the copy?
A. 1MB
B. 9MB
C. 10MB
D. 11MB
Answer: C

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NO.7 What is the default private region size for Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) disks?
A. 8MB
B. 16MB
C. 32MB
D. 64MB
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator needs to move all data volumes and disks in diskgroup appdg into an existing
diskgroup named webdg. The end result will yield one diskgroup on the system: webdg. Which command
should the administrator use to move the data volumes?
A. vxdg move appdg webdg
B. vxdg split appdg webdg
C. vxdg join appdg webdg
D. vxdg add appdg webdg
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which virtual storage configuration can be created with Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for UNIX?
A. LVM
B. RAID
C. SVM
D. LPAR
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two conditions are applicable to disks of a disk group that have been destroyed with the vxdg
destroy command without re-deploying the disks? (Select two.)
A. The destroy operation retains the on-disk disk group ID, which makes the disk group recoverable.
B. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group ID, which makes recovery impossible.
C. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and makes disks available for use in other
disk groups.
D. The destroy operation clears the on-disk disk group name and re-initializes all of the disks.
E. The destroy operation deports the disk group and re-formats all of the disks.
Answer: A,C

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NO.11 An administrator plans to move disks EMC_11 and EMC_12 from diskgroup appdg to diskgroup webdg.
There are several volumes residing on both disks, so the administrator needs a list of volumes that will be
affected for planning purposes. Which command should the administrator use to generate the list?
A. vxdg listclone appdg webdg
B. vxdg listmeta EMC_11 EMC_12
C. vxdg list appdg webdg
D. vxdg listmove appdg webdg EMC_11 EMC_12
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which command line utility is used to view Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM) plexes?
A. vxdisk
B. vxdg
C. vxplex
D. vxprint
Answer: D

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NO.13 The disk group appdg is imported onto host01 using the vxdg -t import appdg command. Volumes
have been started and file systems mounted. The system is then gracefully rebooted. What happens to
the appdg disk group after host01 has restarted?
A. The appdg disk group is automatically imported; all volumes in the disk group are automatically started.
B. The appdg disk group is automatically temporarily imported; all volumes in the disk group are
automatically started.
C. The appdg disk group remains deported; only host01 can import the disk group using the vxdg import
appdg command.
D. The appdg disk group remains deported; any host that can access the appdg disk group can import it.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Veritas File System (VxFS) is an extent based file system. Which two pieces of information form the
basis of an extent? (Select two.)
A. inode number
B. offset
C. length
D. owner's UID
E. block size
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 Which command can an administrator use to display the bsize and logsize used on an existing file
system?
A. mkfs
B. fsadm
C. mount
D. fsmap
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 250-371
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 108 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 An administrator has a tape that has been previously used by Symantec NetBackup 7.5 for client
backups but no longer contains valid data. The barcode has been changed and the tape has been moved
to a different Symantec NetBackup domain. Which action will allow this tape to be used in the new
domain?
A. move the tape to the scratch volume pool
B. relabel the tape
C. deassign the media
D. inventory the robotic library
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator must recover an expired image from a tape where only one remaining copy exists
and there are other unexpired images on the tape. How should the administrator proceed?
A. run the Tape Contents report
B. run an import on the tape
C. duplicate the unexpired images
D. verify the tape
Answer: B

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NO.3 A backup has allocated a tape labeled SQL001 for a SQL backup job from the scratch pool and has
assigned this tape to the Symantec NetBackup volume pool. An administrator now needs to move
SQL001 to a previously created volume pool called SQLTapes. How is this accomplished?
A. right-click SQL001 and select Change
B. expire SQL001, right-click SQL001, and select Change
C. right-click SQL001 and select Move
D. edit the barcode rules and inventory the library
Answer: B

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NO.4 A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with
additional characters. What can be done so that Symantec NetBackup 7.5 uses the same characters as
before the firmware upgrade occurred?
A. update the Media ID Generation setting
B. update the Robot Type mapping
C. update the Media Type mapping
D. update the Barcode Rules setting
Answer: A

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NO.5 During catalog recovery the DR file is unavailable but the images database is intact. Which step should
the administrator take first to resolve the issue?
A. identify catalog backup from the images database
B. run import on all media in the robot
C. import catalog image to disk to a temporary location
D. run bprecover -wizard from the command line with additional switches
Answer: A

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NO.6 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup is about to run, which is being sent to the "servers" volume pool, with a retention level of
1. The host properties displayed below have been enabled. allow multiple retentions per media allow
backups to span tape media allow media overwrite: ANSI, CPIO, DBR Which tape would Symantec
NetBackup 7.5 use for the backup if tape T00306 is unavailable?
A. T00301
B. T00303
C. T00305
D. T00308
E. T00309
Answer: C

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NO.7 By default, new media is assigned to which volume pool during robot inventory without a configured
barcode rule?
A. Symantec NetBackup pool
B. Scratch pool
C. Default pool
D. None pool
Answer: A

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
What will be the outcome of the policy shown in the exhibit?
A. The client will compress then encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
B. The client will compress the data and then the media server will use tape drive encryption.
C. The client will send the data to the media server, which will compress and then encrypt the data.
D. The client will encrypt the data before sending it to the media server.
Answer: A

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NO.9 A backup on tape is due to expire in one week. The administrator needs to keep the image available
for restore indefinitely. Which two methods can be used to accomplish this goal? (Select two.)
A. use the bpexpdate command to change the expiration date of the image
B. use the bpretlevel command to customize the retention level
C. use the bpimmedia command to freeze the tape
D. use the bpduplicate command to create a copy with an infinite retention
E. use the vmchange command to change the expiration date of the tape
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 An administrator needs to protect a large volume of data with millions of files to tape. Which policy
feature should the administrator use?
A. Use accelerator
B. Deduplication
C. Use multiple streams
D. FlashBackup
Answer: D

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NO.11 An administrator tries to suspend an active job from the Symantec NetBackup Activity Monitor but
discovers that the option is grayed out. What is preventing the administrator from suspending the job?
A. Encryption is enabled.
B. The parent job is still active.
C. Multiplexing is enabled.
D. Checkpoint restart is disabled.
Answer: D

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NO.12 The Symantec NetBackup administrator is concerned that the media server deduplication pool is using
more space than estimated. In which two places can the administrator find the amount of space used in
the media server deduplication pool? (Select two.)
A. Reports > Disk Storage Status
B. Device Monitor > Disk Pools
C. Reports > Disk Logs
D. Devices > Disk Pools
E. Reports > Disk Pool Status
Answer: D,E

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NO.13 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 master server has a Microsoft Windows policy that protects over 500
servers using the directive ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES. The backup window for this policy is between
3:00 PM and 5:00 PM and is unshared with any other policy. When the backup window for this policy is
open, the overall performance of the disk storage unit gets degraded. Which setting should the
administrator modify to reduce the number of concurrent streams writing to the disk storage unit to 10
during the backup window?
A. disable multiplexing on the policy schedules
B. set the "Maximum backup copies" host property to 10
C. enable multiplexing for the storage unit and set the value to 10
D. enable the "Limit Jobs per policy" attribute
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which two are used to change the status of a disk pool? (Select two.)
A. Nbdevquery
B. Device Monitor
C. Devices > Disk Pools
D. Nbdevstatus
E. nbdevconfig
Answer: B,E

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NO.15 A Symantec NetBackup 7.5 administrator at a hospital needs to store secure tape copies of protected
data to an offsite location. How can an administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create
detailed reports.?
A. enable the Encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports
B. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a Vault policy to perform automated ejects
and create reports
C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform
automated ejects and create reports
D. configure a storage lifecycle policy to enable automatic ejects and create reports, then enable the
Encryption attribute on the policy
Answer: B

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NO.1 It is possible to enable a user to enroll their device with an e-mail address rather than an
enrollment URL in both the Symantec Mobile Management for Configuration Manager 2007 and
Symantec Mobile Management for SMP products. What step is necessary to enable a mobile
device user to enroll with their e-mail address rather than an enrollment URL?
A. attach the device to the internal network to allow email enrollment
B. add a new text record to the DNS server(s)
C. add an attribute to the Active Directory user object enabling email enrollment
D. attach the device to an external network to allow email enrollment
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which policies are supported by Windows Phone 7.5?
A. Device restrictions for networking
B. SCEP profiles for certificates
C. iCal and POP/SMTP email
D. Only settings sent via EAS policies
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two options does an administrator use to specify if profiles can be removed from an iOS
device? (Select two.)
A. the device user can be allowed to remove a policy without specifying a password
B. the device user can be restricted from removing all policies from a device
C. the device user can be restricted from removing a specific policy from a device
D. the device user can be allowed to remove a policy by specifying a password
E. the device user can be prompted to contact the administrator to remove a policy
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which action must an administrator perform to install Mobile Management on a Symantec
Mobile
Management Server (Site Server)?
A. log into the Symantec Management Console from the Site Server > download the necessary
files > install Symantec Mobile Management
B. download and launch the Symantec Installation Manager from Symantec's website on the Site
Server > install Symantec Mobile Management
C. install Symantec Agent on the Site Server > rollout the install to the Site Server from the
Symantec Management Console
D. push the installer to the Site Server from the Symantec Management Console > run the
UpdateSiteServer.exe that is on the Consoles Desktop
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which type of content is impossible to include in and distribute through the SMM Mobile
Library?
A. PDF
B. Visio
C. spreadsheet
D. YouTube video link
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which iOS profile type allows configuration of Exchange ActiveSync account in the native iOS
email client?
A. SCEP
B. EAS
C. iCal
D. Email
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which option does an administrator apply to content without requiring a content policy?
A. Allow Offline Access
B. Fail-safe Revocation Timer
C. Auto Upgrade
D. Content Expiry
Answer: D

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NO.8 What tool must an administrator generate to allow access to reporting data from an external
source?
A. Data API Access Key
B. One Time Password
C. OAuth Token
D. LDAP login
Answer: A

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NO.9 What does the acronym "GCM" stand for and how is it used?
A. Google Cloud Messaging and it is used to generate certificates
B. Google Certificate Manager and it is used to generate certificates
C. Google Cloud Messaging and it is used to push actions and commands to Android devices
D. Google Certificate Manager and it is used to push actions and commands to Android devices
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which file types are unacceptable for encrypted previews?
A. .doc, .docx
B. .xls, .xlsx
C. .pdf
D. .mp3, .mp4
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which two must a Bean Provider supply for each enterprise bean in the deployment descriptor?
(Choose two.)
A. security roles
B. the JNDI name of the enterprise bean
C. the enterprise bean type: session, entity, or message-driven
D. the value of the transaction attributes for the home and component interface methods
E. the fully-qualified name of the class that implements the enterprise bean's business methods
Answer: C E

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NO.2 Place the expertise on its associated EJB role.
Answer:

NO.3 Which two APIs are provided to the Bean Provider by an EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
A. JTA
B. JMX
C. JSP
D. JDO
E. JAXP
Answer: A E

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NO.4 What two statements are true about EJB 2.0 container crashes? (Choose two.)
A. Entities will survive.
B. An entity bean's primary key will survive.
C. Message-driven bean instances will survive.
D. Stateful session bean instances will survive.
E. Crashes are guaranteed to be transparent to clients using entity beans.
Answer: A B

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NO.5 Which feature is mandatory for an EJB 2.0 compliant container?
A. JMX support
B. JVM co-resident JSPs
C. deferred database writes
D. lazy loading of entity bean data
E. client principal caller propagation
Answer: E

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NO.6 What are two programming restrictions in the EJB 2.0 specification? (Choose two.)
A. An enterprise bean must not declare static fields as final .
B. An enterprise bean must not attempt to load a native library.
C. An enterprise bean must not attempt to create a new security manager.
D. An enterprise bean must not propagate a RuntimeException to the container.
E. An enterprise bean must not attempt to obtain a javax.naming.InitialContext .
Answer: B C

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NO.7 Label the methods according to whether the container ensures that the identity of the associated
entity object is available or unavailable to the instance during the method.
Answer:

NO.8 Which two are guaranteed to a Bean Provider using an EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
A. access to the JCE API
B. access to JavaMail API
C. access to the JXTA API
D. access to the JAXP API
Answer: B D

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NO.9 Which is a Bean Provider's security-related responsibility?
A. assigns principals to roles in the application server
B. declares the role-link element in the deployment descriptor
C. declares the security-role element in the deployment descriptor
D. declares the security-role-ref element in the deployment descriptor
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two statements about a client's reference to a session bean's remote home interface are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The reference can be passed as a method argument.
B. The reference provides the client with the IP address of the bean instance.
C. The reference provides the client with access to at least one create method.
D. A new home reference must be obtained for each new reference to a remote component interface.
Answer: A C

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NO.11 Which two must a Bean Provider avoid in an enterprise bean to ensure that the bean is portable to
any compliant EJB 2.0 container? (Choose two.)
(Assume that all reference variables have been correctly and legally initialized.)
A. java.sql.Connection c = aDataSource.getConnection();
B. java.security.Principal p = context.getCallerPrincipal();
C. QueueSession q = aQueueConnection.createQueueSession(true, 0);
D. Object o = new Object();
Object o2 = o.getClass().getClassLoader();
E. java.io.FileInputStream fs = new java.io.FileInputStream("MyFile");
Answer: D E

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NO.12 Which two are required to properly implement a CMP entity bean class? (Choose two.)
A. Declare variables for all persistent fields.
B. Provide constructors to initialize the CMP fields.
C. Do not implement the ejbFind<METHOD> methods.
D. Provide implementation code for get and set methods to store and retrieve the persistent fields.
E. Implement ejbCreate<METHOD> methods for all home interface create<METHOD> methods.
Answer: C E

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NO.13 Given:
Which two elements must be included in the <resource-ref> tag? (Choose two.)
A. <res-type>
B. <res-ref-name>
C. <resource-env-ref>
D. <environment-resource>
Answer: A B

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NO.14 Which is a feature of EJB 2.0?
A. It provides synchronous message handling through message driven beans.
B. It provides support for both local and remote client views for session beans.
C. It provides support for both local and remote client views for message driven beans.
D. It guarantees that all services represented by an object will have conversational state.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which is a capability guaranteed by all EJB 2.0 containers?
A. JTA support
B. server failover
C. load balancing
D. servlet support
E. server clustering
Answer: A

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
All beans involved use container-managed transactions and all methods are marked as Required. At
runtime, methodB is unable to communicate with its resource and calls the setRollbackOnly method.
What is the result?
A. JMS message redelivery semantics will apply.
B. The rollback will propagate to the sender of the message.
C. The bean's onMessage method will reattempt the sequence.
D. Transactions started by the onMessage method will always commit.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which statement is true about a session bean's lifecycle?
A. Session beans cannot receive re-entrant loopback calls.
B. A stateless session bean's home interface can have overloaded create methods.
C. Stateless session beans can implement javax.ejb.SessionSynchronization.
D. The EJB 2.0 container can make concurrent calls to any stateful session bean instance.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which method from javax.ejb.EJBContext returns an object that allows a Bean Provider to demarcate
transactions?
A. begin()
B. getAutoCommit()
C. getTransaction()
D. beginTransaction()
E. getUserTransaction()
Answer: E

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NO.19 What is true about using java.net.Socket and java.net.ServerSocket within session bean business
methods?
A. Both classes can be used.
B. Neither class can be used.
C. Of the two classes, only java.net.Socket can be used.
D. Of the two classes, only java.net.ServerSocket can be used.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which two are valid types for persistent fields in a CMP 2.0 entity bean? (Choose two.)
A. Java primitives
B. entity bean local interfaces
C. classes implementing java.io.Serializable
D. either java.util.Collection or java.util.Set
Answer: A C

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NO.21 Given:
Which EJB role is responsible for supplying this information?
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. Container Provider
D. System Administrator
E. Application Assembler
Answer: E

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NO.22 Who must ensure that a bean's environment entries are set to meaningful values?
A. Deployer
B. Bean Provider
C. EJB Server Provider
D. System Administrator
E. Application Assembler
F. EJB Container Provider
Answer: A

SUN questions   310-090   310-090

NO.23 Which two actions could adversely affect the portability of an EJB 2.0 bean? (Choose two.)
A. changing a thread's priority
B. directly reading or writing a file descriptor
C. using java.net.Socket to be a network client
D. demarcating a transaction in a stateless session bean
E. using bean-managed transactions in a message-driven bean
Answer: A B

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NO.24 Which exception can be thrown by the findByPrimaryKey method of a remotely called entity bean using
container-managed persistence?
A. javax.ejb.EJBException
B. javax.ejb.DuplicateKeyException
C. javax.ejb.NoSuchEntityException
D. javax.ejb.ObjectNotFoundException
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which method can be found in BOTH the EJBHome and EJBLocalHome interface?
A. getHomeHandle()
B. getEJBMetaData()
C. remove(Handle handle)
D. remove(Object primaryKey)
Answer: D

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NO.26 Which transaction attribute may cause a javax.transaction.TransactionRequiredException to be
thrown?
A. Required
B. Supports
C. Mandatory
D. RequiresNew
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The EJB container must not allow the same enterprise bean to be deployed multiple times.
B. The EJB container must allow IIOP invocations on remote component and home interfaces.
C. The EJB container is not required to support publishing home references in a CORBA CosNaming
service.
D. The EJB container must implement the resource manager connection factory classes for resource
managers configured with the container.
E. The EJB container must allow enterprise beans deployed in the same enterprise archive to access one
another directly without having to go through home or remote interfaces.
Answer: B D

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NO.28 Which statement about EJB QL is true?
A. An EJB QL query must contain the ORDER BY clause.
B. An EJB QL query is statically defined in the ejb-jar.xml deployment descriptor.
C. Duplicate values are always removed from EJB QL query results by the container.
D. It is legal to use an input parameter in the FROM clause or the SELECT clause of an EJB QL query.
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which accurately describes a characteristic of EJB 2.0?
A. EJB 2.0 is an example of a web-based component model.
B. EJB 2.0 components must be directly accessible via HTTP.
C. EJB 2.0 is an example of a component model for GUI applications.
D. EJB 2.0 applications can link to legacy systems using a J2EE connector.
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which two must be in an ejb-jar file, either by inclusion or reference? (Choose two.)
A. an enterprise archive (.ear) file
B. a deployment descriptor in the format defined by the EJB 2.0 specification
C. the class files for the classes that implement the home and remote interfaces
D. the class files for the interfaces and superinterfaces used by the bean, except J2SE or J2EE interfaces
E. the class files for the stub classes of the EJBHome andEJBObject interfaces, if remote interfaces are
deployed for the bean
Answer: B D

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