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Exam Code: 00M-648
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational IT Sales Mastery Test v2 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 81 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Many organizations depend on web-based software to run their business processes, conduct
transactions and deliver increasingly sophisticated services to customers. What is a key way that Rational
AppScan helps organizations better secure those applications.?
A. It provides a run time monitor of web applications to prevent unwanted intrusions.
B. It enables organizations to embed application security testing throughout the development life cycle to
help increase visibility and control while employing a risk mitigation strategy.
C. It provides authentication and identification services to ensure that only authorized users can access
mission critical applications.
D. It analyzes network traffic to identify trojan horses, malware, etc.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of these challenges exist most often in Software Development and Delivery?
A. Language, Relational, Geographic
B. Organizational, Cultural, Systemic
C. Environmental, Infrastructure, Educational
D. Geographic, Organizational and Infrastructure
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is a key differentiator of the Rational Deployment Planning and Automation solution compared to
competitive offerings?
A. A focus on continuous integration deployment automation.
B. Its strategy is to automate logic that the customer has already written.
C. It relies on integrating a mix of Rational and open-source technologies.
D. It is a true broad development-to-operations solution.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: COG-605
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 Controller Developer )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 94 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the difference between currency conversion codes I and C?
A. Code I uses no currency conversion for the opening balance; code C copies prior year's average rate.
B. Code C copies prior year's average rate for opening balance; code I calculates prior year's closing rate
C. Code I calculates opening balance rate, code C copies the opening balance amount.
D. Code C copies prior year's average rate; code I uses prior year's closing rate for opening balance.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator wants to create movement accounts to track changes between the opening and
closing balances of account 1200 (Machinery and Equipment). What must the administrator attach to
account 1200 in order to generate these movement accounts?
A. Base extensions
B. Group journals
C. Movement extensions
D. Movement journals
Answer: C

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NO.3 A multi-page Excel Link report contains several Controller functions on every worksheet. In order to
improve performance when running the report, how should the functions be organized in the report?
A. Name the worksheets in alphabetical order and insert all functions on the last Excel worksheet.
B. Name the worksheets in alphabetical order and insert all functions on the first Excel worksheet
C. Functions should be split evenly between worksheets, and hidden in system columns A. B, and C.
D. Functions should be split evenly between worksheets. and hidden in system rows 1 to 27.
Answer: B

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NO.4 An administrator is creating a standard data entry form for end users. On which tab must the
administrator specify the type of information that will be shown on the rows and columns of the form?
A. Axes tab
B. Reorder tab
C. Process Layouts tab
D. Lock tab
Answer: A

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NO.5 Why is the offset account for certain investment elimination control tables the same?
A. So that investment and intercompany eliminations are able to perform the same calculations
B. So that automatic journals make a zero sum in the offset account in the consolidated group
C. So that currency conversion is easily performed and reconciled in the consolidated group
D. So that when the administrator copies opening balances to another period, the administrator can
reconcile and differences
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following tools could be used to load data into the Controller staging tables?
A. IBM Controller Import Specification wizard
B. IBM Cognos Data Manager
C. IBM Cognos Configuration
D. IBM Cognos Controller Excel Link
Answer: B

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NO.7 In the diagrams below, a journal entry for Cash (account B100000, an asset account in the balance
sheet) and External Reserves (account R100_000, a cost account in the income statement) is recorded in
the amount of 100. The balance sheet in the Journals Across report does not balance anymore because
Total Assets (account B450000) has a value of 1200 and Total Liabilities and Equity (account B750000)
has a value of 1100. What caused the difference between the Total Assets and Total Liabilities and Equity
accounts?
A. The company journal type, US GAAP, should credit account B711000 for 100.
B. Balance Sheet for Net Income in the general configuration should be B711000.
C. In the general configuration, no value has been specified in the Other Difference for Automatic
Journals field
D. Net Income (Non-integrated) in the general configuration should be B711000.
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator created a company journal. The administrator then added several transactions to the
journal. The accounts in these transactions use currency conversion code I. By default, if there is no
amount for the previous year (no local amount or converted amount), what rate is used to convert the
local amount for the current year?
A. The previous year's closing rate
B. The previous year's opening rate
C. The previous year's average rate
D. The previous year's data is not used
Answer: A

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NO.9 The administrator has generated a group adjustment company (GAC). Which of the following actions
will a user be able to perform with the GAC?
A. Eliminate investments using automatic journals
B. Enter reported value adjustments using a data entry form
C. Enter data into group journals
D. Create company journals
Answer: C

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NO.10 How can currency conversion be verified after running a consolidation?
A. Check the log report that appears after consolidation is run.
B. Execute the calculation report created for currency conversion.
C. Run the Currency Conversion report for the group company.
D. Run the journals across report for the group after consolidation.
Answer: C

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NO.11 How can an administrator validate company structures to ensure that they meet the application's rules.?
A. Verify Structures menu
B. Verify Companies menu
C. Company structure log file
D. Consolidation structures log file
Answer: A

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NO.12 The administrator activated the Set Status for Submission to Ready After Reconciliation and the Use
Period Locking on Company Level. What is the effect?
A. Submissions and reconciliations are locked and company status is set to ready
B. Company status is set to ready and submissions and reconciliations are started
C. Company status is set to ready and submissions are locked if reconciliations cleared
D. Submission is allowed only once per company when status is set to ready
Answer: C

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NO.13 End users report data on a weekly basis. They want to be able to work with as many weeks as possible
in a single fiscal year. When configuring the application, what is the maximum number of weeks that an
administrator can specify for a year?
A. 52
B. 53
C. 12
D. 13
Answer: B

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NO.14 End users need to enter data related to intercompany transactions into the Controller system. What
must the administrator set up to enable users to enter this data?
A. Accounts with defined intercompany codes and transaction currencies
B. Counter company information and extended dimensions
C. Accounts with defined intercompany codes and include the accounts on a form
D. Counter company information and transaction currencies
Answer: C

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NO.15 When importing external data files using import specification, which of the following are compulsory
fields in the upload file?
A. Period, Consolidation Type. Company, Submission, Account, Amount
B. Period, Actuality, Company, Currency, Account, Amount
C. Period, Actuality,Company,Consolidation Type, Account, Amount
D. Period,Submission, Company,Currency,Account, Amount
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-N10
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Information Server Technical Mastery Test v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Multiple steps or tasks are performed when analyzing the data with InfoSphere Discovery. Which of the
following statements is accurate?
A. Transformations are discovered during the execution of the Maps step.
B. Running a step (column analysis, PF keys, Maps) results in the execution of one or more DataStage
jobs.
C. Changing the processing options for the PF key analysis does not impact which columns will be
identified as primary key and foreign keycolumn.
D. Discovery will identify at most one map between two data objects.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Queries in Metadata Workbench offer an easy way to investigate specific metadata in Metadata
Repository. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
A. In a query, the criteria used for filtering the desired metadata can be based on different asset types
B. Queries can be saved in XML format
C. Only the administrator can create new queries
D. Queries can report on objects that are not stored in the Metadata Repository, as long as these objects
are created by one of the InformationServer suite of products
Answer: A

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NO.3 You have installed Information Analyzer. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. The analysis database is automatically created during installation.
B. The analysis database is part of the Information Server Metadata Repository.
C. The analysis database can only be installed after the installation of the Information Server suite.
D. The analysis database can only be created before installing the Information Server suite.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement about FastTrack mapping editor is TRUE?
A. Each transformation rule description field must be filled before a job can be generated.
B. The transformation rule expression field does not need to be filled for each pair of mapped columns
before a job can be generated.
C. Each transformation rule expression must contain valid SQL syntax.
D. The annotation field contains information about errors encountered during validation of a mapping
specification.
Answer: B

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NO.5 In Business Glossary, you have defined a term named "Product Brand". The names of these product
brands are in an operational database table named BRANDS. Some of these brands are not valid. What
would be the best way to enable BG users to see an up-to-date list of valid product brands?
A. In Business Glossary, associate the term "Product Brand" with the table BRANDS
B. Create a new table VALIDBRANDS in the operational database, and copy only the valid values in that
table. Then, in Business Glossary, associate the term "Product Brand" with the table VALIDBRANDS.
C. Create a reference table of valid brands with Information Analyzer. Then, in Business Glossary, create
a custom attribute named VALIDBRANDS, and write the values of the valid brands, using the reference
table data. Associate the custom attribute with the term "Product Brand".
D. Create a reference table of valid brands with Information Analyzer. Create a service which returns the
list of valid brands from the reference table. Then, in Business glossary, invoke the service from a custom
attribute named VALIDBRANDS, and associate this attribute with the term "Product Brand".
Answer: D

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NO.6 Using Blueprint Director, which technical artifacts can be linked to a blueprint?
-DataStage jobs -Business Glossary terms -Cognos Framework Manager model -External assets such as
URLs, and documents
A. I, II
B. I, II, III
C. I, II, IV.
D. I, II, III, IV
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which tool would you recommend to obtain a clear roadmap of the tasks required to deal with quality
issues of data stored in your source databases?
A. Use the native DBMS catalog tables, and retrieve the detailed statistics
B. InfoSphere Metadata Workbench
C. InfoSphere Information Analyzer
D. InfoSphere Blueprint Director
E. InfoSphere Discovery
F. InfoSphere QualityStage
Answer: D

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NO.8 When reviewing the analysis results in Information Analyzer, what does a red flag mean in the
summary pane?
A. The analysis could not complete in the time allocated; results are based on a subset of the data.
B. An error occurred during analysis.
C. An anomaly was detected between the defined value and the inferred value.
D. The column was checked by the user because it requires additional review.
Answer: C

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NO.9 There is a need to create a new business term in the business glossary. This can be done by a user
having which user role and using which interface of InfoSphere Business Glossary.?
A. A user with the Business Glossary administrator role, using the Business Glossary Browser interface
B. A user with the Business Glossary author role, using the Business Glossary client for Eclipse
C. A user with the Business Glossary author role, using an application developed with the Business
glossary REST API, allowing business terms to be created
D. A user with Business Glossary user role, using the administrative interface of Business Glossary
(Information Server Web Console)
Answer: C

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NO.10 Regarding Metadata Workbench, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. It creates business, data and operational lineage reports.
B. It creates operational and data lineage reports.
C. It creates business and data lineage reports.
D. It creates architectural, data and operational lineage reports.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-220
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Sterling Connect:Direct, Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS administrator navigated to the Secure+ Admin Tool: Main
Screen?shown here: Which Connect:Direct Secure+ remote node supports the STS encryption protocol?
A. SECURE.REMOTE01
B. SECURE.REMOTE02
C. SECURE.REMOTE03
D. SECURE.REMOTE04
Answer: B

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NO.2 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX in the directory /opt/connect and defined
the local node name as CDUNIX01. The administrator wants to start Connect:Direct for UNIX Command
Line Interface (CLI) client to submit a process. Which environment variable must the administrator set to
get access to this client?
A. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/direct
B. PATH=/opt/connect/ndm/bin/ndmcli
C. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/cliapi/ndmapi.cfg
D. NDMAPICFG=/opt/connect/ndm/cfg/CDUNIX01/initparm.cfg
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator wants to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX but Connect:Direct needs to run all
executing processes to completion before shutting down. Which command should be submitted?
A. stop;
B. stop step;
C. stop force;
D. stop immediate;
Answer: A

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NO.4 In Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which parameter is required when configuring a remote node
using Advanced Program to Program Communication (APPC)?
A. Partner LU Name
B. Alternate Comminfo
C. Host Name/IP Address
D. UDT communication path name
Answer: A

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NO.5 A SNIFFER trace shows the following entries:
A NETSTAT display was performed. What is the correct connection state that a user should expect?
A. LAST ACK
B. FIN WAIT1
C. ESTABLISHED
D. The administrator would NOT expect to see a connection show up.
Answer: D

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NO.6 In Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX, in which path is the file ndmproc located?
A. ndm/lib/
B. ndm/bin/
C. ndm/cfg/cliapi/
D. ndm/cfg/cd_node/
Answer: B

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NO.7 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to get a list of processes that completed
successfully. The command begins with: select statistics ccode=(=,0) recids=... ; Which Record Id filters
will complete this command?
A. CTRC
B. PRED
C. PSED
D. PSTR
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator installed Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows node on a new server. The
administrator also defined new Functional Authorities for another user. When the user logs onto the
server and opens Connect:Direct Requester for the first time, the node is not displayed. The Nodes view
is empty. What should the user do in order to attach to the new node?
A. Add the new node to the netmap.
B. Contact the administrator and ask to verify access.
C. Logon to the server with the administrator's account.
D. Select Node>Connection Settings>Insert Node and enter the local node information.
Answer: D

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NO.9 One of the benefits of using Sterling Connect:Direct is that it:
A. focuses on message switching.
B. utilizes proprietary data formatting.
C. provides 24 x 365 unattended operation.
D. offers manual restart through the use of email.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which component is invoked to stop Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX?
A. Security Exit
B. User Manager
C. Session Manager
D. Process Manager
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following is supported by Sterling Connect:Direct for z/OS V1 FMH flows?
A. XDR Keywords
B. Mapped DSECTS
C. ZLIB Compression
D. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC)
Answer: B

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NO.12 A Sterling Connect:Direct for UNIX administrator needs to submit a process directly into the Execution
queue in order to bypass the Wait queue. Which command will accomplish this task?
A. submit
B. submit hold=no
C. submit retain=no
D. submit maxdelay=0
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which utility can be used via command line to export and import users and netmap settings in Sterling
Connect:Direct for Windows?
A. Client Connection Utility
B. Logon Configuration Utility (LCU)
C. Connect:Direct Configuration Utility
D. Connect:Direct Command Line Interface (CLI)
Answer: C

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NO.14 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user is troubleshooting a problem for either changing,
deleting, selecting or terminating a process. Which diagnostic trace option should be used?
A. cmgr
B. pmgr
C. smgr
D. comm
Answer: B

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NO.15 A user is building a process to send a compressed ZIP archive file to a remote node. What
compression setting is most efficient and provides the best performance for this type of file?
A. COMPRESS Extended
B. COMPRESS PRIMECHAR=X'20'
C. COMPRESS Extended=(CMPrlevel=9,WINdowsize=15,MEMlevel=9)
D. No compression.
Answer: D

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environment on a cluster file system (not an NFS). The administrator needs to specify a shared area
where the multiple nodes can place return code files and copy checkpoint information, so that the various
nodes are aware of activity. What parameter is used to specify this?
A. ndm.path
B. comm.info
C. quiesce.resume
D. snode.work.path
Answer: D

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NO.17 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows environment is installed to allow for high availability, by
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parameter is used to specify this virtual IP address?
A. node.check
B. tcp.host.port
C. outgoing.address
D. Alternate Comminfo
Answer: C

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NO.18 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows administrator needs to verify that the latest fixes have been
applied. Which option will show the release and maintenance level of the Windows node?
A. SPAdmin
B. Admin Tool
C. Message Lookup
D. Configuration Utility
Answer: B

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NO.19 A Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows and UNIX user wants to determine the outcome of process
numbers 10 to 15. What command can retrieve this information?
A. select statistics pnumber=(10-15);
B. select statistics pnumber=(10..15);
C. select statistics pnumber=10,11,12,13,14,15;
D. select statistics pnumber=(10,11,12,13,14,15);
Answer: D

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NO.20 When configuring a node in Sterling Connect:Direct for Windows, which field is found on the General
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A. API IP Address
B. Local LU Name
C. Max PNode Sessions
D. Enable TCP/IP Support
Answer: C

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Guardium Sales Mastery Test v1)
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NO.1 In the European Telco case, one of their immediate needs is to _________.
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B. meet governance requirements
C. optimize database usage
D. migrate from Oracle to Microsoft database technology
Answer: A

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A. occurs on database server level
B. resides outside of the firewall
C. is a result of laptop theft
D. happens because of insecure storage devices
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 00M-232
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Solutions for Smart Business Sales Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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A. True. Solutions for Smart Business are completely integrated in one package to allow ease of ordering.
B. False. Solutions for Smart Business require separate part numbers for the solution and Foundation for
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C. True. A single part number can be used except for situations where the customer would like to
exchange parts of the solution for other components.
D. False. Solutions for Smart Business can be ordered as a hardware appliance
Answer: A

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NO.2 How can IBM Solutions for Smart Business be deployed?
A. In Unix or Linux operating environments.
B. On all IBM or any non-IBM hardware.
C. On selected IBM and third Party vendor platforms.
D. In Microsoft Windows Server operating environments.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the value proposition for Business Partners selling Solutions for Smart Business.?
A. Shorter sales cycles with minimal time and investment required - solution sales are repeatable and
require limited customization.
B. Priced right for midsize customers.
C. Offer more pricing flexibility and generate annuity streams from customers who want to utilize usage
based pricing.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-332
Exam Name: IBM (High Availability for AIX - Technical Support and Administration -v2)
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Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What cluster service settings can be defined in SMIT on one node of a cluster and automatically
updated on all other nodes?
A. BROADCAST message at startup
B. Start HACMP at system restart
C. Verify Cluster Prior to Startup
D. Startup Cluster Information Daemon
Answer: A

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NO.2 When implementing PowerHA in a cross site LVM configuration, which logical volume option is
required.?
A. Serialize IO=yes
B. Mirror Write Consistency=on
C. Scheduling Policy=sequential
D. Allocation Policy=superstrict
Answer: D

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NO.3 An administrator is planning to upgrade from HACMP 5.5 and AIX 5.3 to PowerHA 7 and AIX 7. After
migration installing AIX, what must be done first?
A. Install CAAfileset.
B. Migrate to PowerHA 7.
C. Run the clmigcheck program.
D. Create shared VG for use by CAA.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Consider the following PowerHA DLPAR configuration for a cluster, and LPAR profile on the HMC for a
standby node in that cluster: How should the standby node profile be reconfigured so that an application
runs with the minimum hardware resources?
A. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.1 and Maximum processing units = 0.6
B. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.2 and Maximum processing units = 0.5
C. Minimum processing units = 0.6 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 1.5
D. Minimum processing units = 0.5 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 0.9
Answer: D

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NO.5 The service IPs VLAN is the only routable network in a 2-node HA cluster with multiple network
interfaces. What must done to enable administrative tasks to be performed remotely on the cluster
nodes?
A. Associate a permanent Service IP address for each HA node.
B. Configure the boot IP Address on the same VLAN as the service IP Address.
C. Configure a persistent IP Address for each node on the service IP network.
D. Create a route on the switch and translate the Service IP address to the boot IP address using NAT.
Answer: C

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NO.6 There is a two-node cluster with Node1 and Node2. An administrator changes filesystem size on Node1
by using the chfs command, and moves resource the group to Node2.
The administrator finds the change of filesystem size is recognized on Node2.
Why is the filesystem size change reflected on Node2?
A. The gsclvmd daemon automatically synchronizes filesystem changes.
B. The filesystem size change is recognized when filesystem is mounted on Node2.
C. A pre-event is defined to get_disk_vg_fs event to reflect filesystem size change.
D. The shared volume group is re-imported on Node2 by lazy update when moving the resource group.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Given the information from hacmp.out below, why is the cluster in config_too_long status?
A. The script /APP1/serv/scripts/shut_down does not exist.
B. The APP1 stop_server script exited with a non zero return code.
C. The application did not shut down correctly, which caused the rg_move operation to exceed the time
limit to complete.
D. The rg_move event is sleeping for anything between 360 seconds and 3600 hours until the
stop_server script is complete.
Answer: B

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NO.8 A 2-node cluster has three multi-node disk heartbeat (MNDHB) networks and data volume groups on
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two of the three MNDHB disks?
A. Node1 halts
B. Application resource groups move to Node2
C. Application resource groups remain on Node1
D. Application resource groups on Node1 go offline
Answer: B

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NO.9 An administrator is using PowerHA 7 to define a new cluster using SMIT option "Setup a Cluster, Nodes
and Networks" and encountered the following error message:
What is the root cause of the problem?
A. The nodes were not defined in the DNS
B. The /etc/cluster/rhosts are not populated correctly
C. The CAA repository disk is not accessible on all nodes
D. The CAA cluster was not defined before defining the PowerHA Cluster
Answer: B

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NO.10 When PowerHA SystemMirror 7.1 is installed on AIX 7.1, what RSCT component does Cluster Aware
AIX (CAA) replace?
A. Group Services
B. Resource Manager
C. Topology Services
D. Resource Monitoring and Control (RMC)
Answer: A

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Exam Name: IBM (Tivoli Enterprise Asset Management Sales Mastery Test v2 )
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Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is IBM Maximo Spatial Asset Management?
A. Geospatially enabled asset and service management
B. A Maximo add-on that provides remote asset management
C. An asset management solution used by NASA
D. An asset management solution to manage linear asset
Answer: A

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A. Plant Engineers have sole responsibility for delivering on the converged asset performance
B. IT Managers have sole responsibility for making decisions on how to manage the converged asset
C. Plant engineers and IT Managers are jointly responsible for delivering high availability of the converged
asset performance
D. Neither Plant Engineers nor IT Managers focus on converged asset performance
Answer: A

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NO.3 In which of the following industries are customers less likely to purchase Maximo Calibration.?
A. Government
B. Oil and Gas
C. Life Sciences
D. Nuclear
Answer: D

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Exam Name: IBM (System x Sales Fundamentals V7)
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Total Q&A: 41 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Which of the following is used to assist with operating system installation, system device drivers, and
other system components and requires minimal user intervention?
A. ServerGuide
B. UpdateXpress
C. Software Distribution Premium Edition
D. IBM Management Processor Command-Line Interface Utility
Answer: A

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NO.2 A System x sales professional is planning an introductory discussion with the customer's executive
management team. Which of the following is the most appropriate subject?
A. Hardware architecture
B. Performance benchmarks
C. Total cost of ownership
D. Reliability, availability, serviceability (RAS)
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer wants to make sure that there are not going to be compatibility issues between a third party
HBA and their eX5 server. Which of the following IBM resources determine compatibility.?
A. xRef
B. COG
C. SSCT
D. ServerProven
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which, of the following features, was first introduced with the eX5 technology?
A. Integrated virtualization with the memory
B. Processor scalability beyond 4-sockets
C. Memory scalability that is not tied to increased processor density
D. Dynamic Provisioning on "bare metal
Answer: C

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NO.5 Active Energy Manager (AEM) is provided to our clients for free, but can be upgraded for a cost. Which
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B. The ability to establish power caps or power savings
C. The ability to manage the power to the cooling systems in the datacenter based on the heat being
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D. The ability to power off Intel processors
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-089
Exam Name: IBM (System x Technical Fundamentals V11)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 39 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 IBM ToolsCenter Bootable Media Creator is used to create bootable media. Which of the following
functions can be performed with this tool?
A. Update firmware, update drivers, install Windows, report energy usage
B. Update firmware, run diagnostics, install Windows, report energy usage
C. Update firmware, update drivers, run diagnostics, install Windows
D. Update firmware, update drivers, run diagnostics, install Windows and Linux
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer asks for financial justification for the System x solution.
Which resource can provide the customer requirements.?
A. Alinean
B. Techline
C. CDAT
D. SSCT
Answer: A

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NO.3 A BladeCenter customer talks about UCS as a superior solution to their HS22 installation. Which of the
following is the competitor and a likely claim?
A. HP is going to stress easy cloud deployment
B. Dell is going to stress low purchase cost
C. Vblock is going to stress storage integration
D. Cisco is going to claim a completely unified system solution
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has fully populated all the storage drive bays on an installed server. The customer plans to
add new storage and share storage with three other servers. Which of the following meets these
requirements?
A. Replace current storage with solid state storage
B. Add external storage via SAN
C. Add external storage via EXP2512
D. Replace current storage with more dense drives
Answer: B

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NO.5 An HP customer has is looking at IBM System x3850 eX5 servers, comparing them to the new HP
DL580. Which of the following is a typical differentiator favoring the x3850?
A. Maximimum memory
B. Processor speed
C. Intergrated quad port 1Gb Ethernet
D. More I/O slots available
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M605
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Automotive Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the business value of process composition?
A. It combines real-time data storage techniques that will help reduce a customers time to market delivery
schedule.
B. It focuses the real value of integrated systems into the day-to-day operational complexities of the
manufacturing line.
C. It integrates real-time, event-driven factory floor with the supply chain to improve operational
performance, asset utilization, and inventory management.
D. None of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which IBM product takes care of partner B2B in the application framework?
A. Maximo
B. COGNOS
C. SPSS
D. WPG
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is one of the five major drivers for the automotive industry?
A. A dependent ecosystem
B. An independent ecosystem
C. A closed ecosystem
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does SPSS do for the customer?
A. It allows the customer to the ability to create models that understand how processes interact over time,
thus predicting problems and triggering an event to take action before the problem occurs.
B. It allows the customer to the ability to create databases that store sequential data, when used in
conjunction with WebSphere Application Server, predict database performance problems.
C. It allows the customer to the ability to create WebSphere Portal pages that display sequential data,
when used in conjunction with WebSphere Application Server, display database performance problems.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.5 What product does IBM have for the customer for planning and scheduling, order management, and
tracking and tracing?
A. ILOG
B. SPSS
C. WebSphere Application Server
D. Rational Application Developer
Answer: B

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