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Exam Code: 1Y0-A20
Exam Name: Citrix (Citrix XenApp 6.5 Administration )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Scenario: An administrator is creating a new XenApp farm. The farm will use hosted applications and
applications streamed using Microsoft App-V technology. Both Microsoft Windows and Apple OS X
computers are in use in the environment. Management requires an automated process to deliver all
necessary clients and plug-ins.
Which two components should the administrator use to automate the process of delivering and updating
client plug-in? (Choose two.)
A. Microsoft Group Policy
B. Citrix Receiver Updater
C. Citrix Merchandising Server
D. Apple Enterprise Management Software
Answer: BC

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NO.2 Users of a medical application are complaining of poor quality images when viewing X-ray scans. The
administrator should create a XenApp policy to _________.
A. enable image caching
B. set the Lossy Compression Level to None
C. set the Progressive Compression level to low
D. set the Heavyweight Compression level to Disabled
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Citrix service should an administrator monitor when troubleshooting issues with Session
Reliability?
A. IMA
B. XML
C. XTE
D. MFCom
Answer: C

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NO.4 An administrator needs to install a XenApp 6.5 server to act as an additional dedicated data collector.
After installing XenApp on the new server, the next step is to configure it by enabling the __________.
A. Session-host mode only
B. Controller and Session-host modes
C. data collector and XML Broker host mode
D. data collector and XTE Service host mode
Answer: B

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NO.5 Scenario: The administrator of a XenApp Enterprise Edition server farm is configuration Single Sign-on
for the users of the farm. The Citrix license server was installed with the default vendor daemon and
console Web port numbers, but NOT the default license server port number.
Of the port numbers that are in use in the XenApp server farm, which one should the administrator specify
for the license server during Single Sign-on configuration?
A. 443
B. 7279
C. 8082
D. 27009
Answer: D

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NO.6 Scenario: An administrator needs to prepare a group of XenApp 6.5 servers for a scheduled
maintenance window. The servers need to accept connections from users that already have existing
sessions but disallow any new connections. The administrator also needs to ensure that the servers
remain in maintenance mode after the software updates are performed, which require multiple restarts.
Which setting can the administrator use from the AppCenter?
A. Prohibit logons only
B. Drain until next restart
C. Allow logons and reconnections
D. Prohibit logons until server restart
E. Prohibit logons and reconnections
Answer: A

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NO.7 Scenario: A Citrix administrator manages a XenApp farm with 3,000 users. The users run the same set
of applications every day. Users complain that Application B takes a long time to launch after they exit
Application A. The administrator is required to implement a solution to speed up application launch.
What should the administrator do in order to ensure that users are able to launch Application B quickly
after they exit Application A?
A. Configure Session Linger
B. Set Linger Disconnect Time Interval to 0
C. Set Pre-launch Terminate Time Interval to 0
D. Create a Pre-launch session for Application B
Answer: A

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NO.8 In building out a new XenApp environment, an administrator places the Secure Gateway and Web
Interface in the DMZ. What must the administrator do to secure the traffic to the XML Broker?
A. Change the XML traffic port to a non-standard assignment.
B. Use the SSL Relay tool to encrypt traffic to the XML Broker in the farm.
C. Place the XML Broker in the DMZ and encrypt the traffic between them.
D. Use encrypted ICA to communicate between the XML Broker and the Web Interface.
Answer: B

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NO.9 In order for an administrator to download a license from the company's mycitrix.com portal, the
administrator must be added _________.
A. as a Citrix Administrator in the AppCenter
B. into the contacts for the company in mycitrix.com
C. to the Purchasing Active Directory group in the company
D. as a Domain Administrator in the company's Active Directory
Answer: B

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NO.10 Scenario: An administrator has finished installing the first server in a new farm and is now creating the
data store. The farm will consist of five servers and needs to support about 50 users. The company wants
this installation to be as cost-effective as possible.
What is the best option for a database system that would support this farm effectively?
A. Microsoft Access
B. Microsoft SQL Server
C. Oracle Database System
D. Microsoft SQL Server Express
Answer: D

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NO.11 Scenario: A XenApp administrator must recommend a database option for the new XenApp 6.5 data
store. The new farm will have more than 100 XenApp servers and 500 published resources, support more
than 5,000 concurrent users and have two zones separated by a WAN connection.
Which two database options should be administrator recommend? (Choose two.)
A. IBM DB2 9.7
B. Oracle Enterprise 1.1
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
D. Microsoft SQL Server Express 2008
Answer: BC

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NO.12 Scenario: Users working from a remote branch office using XenApp are reporting that Flash content is
NOT displayed on an internal web page. Branch office users have NO direct connection to the internet.
Other Intranet sites are unaffected.
Which two steps could the administrator take to resolve the issue without impacting Flash performance?
(Choose two.)
A. Upgrading the Receiver client on the users PC to version 13.
B. Create a XenApp policy to enable Flash redirection for remote users.
C. Downgrade the version of Internet Explorer on the XenApp server to version 7.
D. Enable server-server content fetching policy on the client device using the supplied ADM file.
E. Add the URL of the intranet site to a Flash server-side content fetching URL list policy setting.
F. Uninstall the Flash player on the XenApp server, and install the 10.1 Flash player or later on the client.
Answer: DE

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NO.13 Scenario: A farm contains six servers with one shared data collector that has a custom load balancing
policy to limit the number of connections. An administrator needs to add more users to the farm, which will
result in adding on four more servers for a total of 10. As most users in the farm use a CAD application,
the administrator understands that resource needs will increase.
Which step should the administrator take to maintain farm integrity?
A. Dedicate two new servers as data collectors and set them as Most Preferred in the election.
B. Dedicated one new server as the dedicated data collector and the current data collector as its backup.
C. Dedicate three new servers as shared data collectors and assign Most Preferred in the election panel.
D. Dedicate a new server as a second shared data collector and assign Most Preferred in the election
panel.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Scenario: The administrator of a small XenApp server farm has configured end-to-end encryption
between the XenApp servers and user devices by setting up Access Gateway VPX. Session Reliability is
enabled in the farm with default settings.
Over which port will published applications be delivered.?
A. 80
B. 443
C. 1494
D. 2598
Answer: B

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NO.15 Scenario: An administrator manages a XenApp farm that uses Citrix Provisioning Services to automate
the addition of XenApp servers to the farm. The administrator must implement a solution to automate the
addition of new servers to the published resources, load evaluators, Citrix polices and load balancing
policies.
Which two should the administrator configure to meet the requirements of the scenario?
(Choose two.)
A. Zones
B. Policies
C. Worker group
D. Load evaluators
Answer: BC

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Exam Code: 1Y0-300
Exam Name: Citrix (Deploying Citrix XenDesktop 7 Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 94 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which two security recommendations should a Citrix Engineer consider when creating
roaming profile shares for users? (Choose two.)
A. Use NTFS instead of FAT32.
B. Create profile folders in advance for the users.
C. Apply user permissions instead of group permissions.
D. Hide the shares so that they are NOT visible in My Network Places.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 HTTPS is used in a StoreFront deployment when _________ and __________ are required.
(Choose the two correct options to complete the sentence.)
A. SmartCard Access
B. explicit authentication
C. Domain Single Sign-On
D. user certificate authentication
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to shut down a virtual machine to add an extra vCPU. High
availability is enabled on the resource pool and HA restart priority is set to 'Automatic' for the
virtual machine.
What should the engineer do in order to shut down the virtual machine?
A. Force shutdown for the virtual machine.
B. Stop the Citrix Xen Guest Agent service.
C. Set the HA restart priority to do not restart.
D. Set the HA start order to a number higher than 0.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer executes the command below to configure the Virtual Delivery
Agent (VDA) for Remote PC Access:
XenDesktopVdaSetup.exe /quiet /components vda,plugins /controllers "XD-Controller01"
/enable_hdx_ports /enable_real_time_transport /noreboot
What should the engineer do after the VDA installation is complete to ensure the target device
registers with a Delivery Controller in the environment?
A. Restart the target device.
B. Open port 80 on the target device.
C. Start the Remote PC Access service on the target device.
D. Refresh the Delivery Group associated with the new device.
Answer: A

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NO.5 To reuse a previously assigned Remote PC Access system, which command will remove the
assigned user from the Virtual Delivery Agent?
A. Remove-UserProfileShare -Path $path
B. Remove-BrokerUser -Machine $machine
C. Remove-XDUser -DesktopName $desktopname
D. Remove-BrokerUser -DesktopGroup $username
Answer: B

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NO.6 Scenario: The Citrix StoreFront Receiver for Web is configured at URL
https://vm020201.company.com. To make the URL easier to remember, the Citrix Engineer wants to
make the Site internally accessible at https://myapps.
Which action could the engineer take to achieve this?
A. Create a second virtual host named myapps and import the SSL Certificate and SSL Key from
vm020201.
B. Create a CNAME DNS Record for myapps and import the SSL Certificate to Trusted Publishers on
vm020201.
C. Create a new A Record pointing to the IP address of vm020201 and verify that myapps is included
in the SSL Certificate Common Name.
D. Create a PTR Record for myapps pointing to vm020201 at reverse lookup zone and verify that
myapps is included in the SSL Certificate Common Name.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer tests access to applications through Citrix StoreFront. The engineer
attempts to launch an application, but receives an error message that states:
Error could not connect to application.
The engineer troubleshoots the issue by disabling Session Reliability, but then receives this error:
SSL Error 38: The proxy denied access
to ;10;STA5DB2A2950063;AAF3E3D7CDED5AA1476364F7BF0F5858 port 1494
http://192.35.53.116 /scripts/ctxsta.dll STA5DB2A2950063
http://192.35.53.117 /scripts/ctxsta.dll STA5DB2A2950063
Why is the engineer receiving this error?
A. STA identifiers on NetScaler are identical.
B. Firewall is blocking STA traffic for 192.35.53.116.
C. Firewall is blocking STA traffic from the Delivery Controller to the DMZ.
D. Identical STA servers are configured in NetScaler and Citrix StoreFront.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A Citrix Engineer at CCH needs to give an administrator located in another office the ability to
manage policies and applications.
Which administrative role should be granted to the administrator?
A. Host Administrator
B. Delivery Administrator
C. Help Desk Administrator
D. Machine Catalog Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.9 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer needs to migrate a virtual desktop pool from Machine Creation
Services to Provisioning Services. The engineer updates the master image and recreates the virtual
desktops by using Provisioning Services.
What should the engineer do next to publish the newly-created virtual desktops?
A. Create a new catalog of the static type and add the new virtual desktops to the catalog.
B. Create a new virtual Delivery Group and add the virtual desktops to the existing catalog.
C. Create a new catalog of the pooled type and add the new virtual desktops to the catalog.
D. Add the new virtual desktops to the existing catalog and change the catalog type to static.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Scenario: The management staff at CCH require dedicated desktops, which they must be able
to customize. Additionally, the emergency response staff require access to hosted applications,
which will run from shared servers.
How should a Citrix Engineer configure the catalog(s) and Delivery Group(s)?
A. Create one machine catalog containing Windows servers and desktops. Create one Delivery
Group to assign servers and desktops.
B. Create two machine catalogs, one for Windows servers and one for Windows desktops. Create
one Delivery Group to assign servers and desktops.
C. Create two machine catalogs, one for Windows servers and one for Windows desktops. Create
two Delivery Groups, assigning desktops from one and servers from the other.
D. Create one machine catalog containing Windows servers and desktops. Create two Delivery
Groups based on the catalog, assigning servers to one Delivery Group and desktops to the other.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 156-515
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Expert Plus NGX)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which of the following types of information should an Administrator use tcpdump to view?
A. DECnet traffic analysis
B. VLAN trunking analysis
C. NAT traffic analysis
D. Packet-header analysis
E. AppleTalk traffic analysis
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which statement is true for route based VPNs?
A. IP Pool NAT must be configured on each gateway
B. Route-based VPNs replace domain-based VPNs
C. Route-based VPNs are a form of partial overlap VPN Domain
D. Packets are encrypted or decrypted automatically
E. Dynamic-routing protocols are not required
Answer: E

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NO.3 VPN debugging information is written to which of the following files?
A. FWDIR/log/ahttpd.elg
B. FWDIR/log/fw.elg
C. $FWDIR/log/ike.elg
D. FWDIR/log/authd.elg
E. FWDIR/log/vpn.elg
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which file provides the data for the host_table output, and is responsible for keeping a record of all
internal IPs
passing through the internal interfaces of a restricted hosts licensed Security Gateway?
A. hosts.h
B. external.if
C. hosts
D. fwd.h
E. fwconn.h
Answer: D

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NO.5 fw monitor packets are collected from the kernel in a buffer. What happens if the buffer becomes full?
A. The information in the buffer is saved and packet capture continues, with new data stored in the buffer.
B. Older packet information is dropped as new packet information is added.
C. Packet capture stops.
D. All packets in it are deleted, and the buffer begins filling from the beginning.
Answer: D

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NO.6 NGX Wire Mode allows:
A. Peer gateways to establish a VPN connection automatically from predefined preshared secrets.
B. Administrators to verify that each VPN-1 SecureClient is properly configured, before allowing it access
to the
protected domain.
C. Peer gateways to fail over existing VPN traffic, by avoiding Stateful Inspection.
D. Administrators to monitor VPN traffic for troubleshooting purposes.
E. Administrators to limit the number of simultaneous VPN connections, to reduce the traffic load passing
through a
Security Gateway.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You modified the *def file on your Security Gateway, but the changes were not applied. Why?
A. There is more than one *.def file on the Gateway.
B. You did not have the proper authority.
C. *.def files must be modified on the SmartCenter Server.
D. The *.def file on the Gateway is read-only.
Answer: C

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NO.8 The list below provides all the actions Check Point recommends to troubleshoot a problem with an
NGX product.
A.List Possible Causes
B.Identify the Problem
C.Collect Related Information
D.Consult Various Reference Sources
E.Test Causes Individually and Logically
Select the answer that shows the order of the recommended actions that make up Check Point's
troubleshooting
guidelines?
A. B, C, A, E, D
B. A, E, B, D, C
C. A, B, C, D, E
D. B, A, D, E, C
E. D, B, A, C, E
Answer: A

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NO.9 Assume you have a rule allowing HTTP traffic, on port 80, to a specific Web server in a Demilitarized
Zone (DMZ). If
an external host port scans the Web server's IP address, what information will be revealed?
A. Nothing; the NGX Security Server automatically block all port scans.
B. All ports are open on the Security Server.
C. All ports are open on the Web server.
D. The Web server's file structure is revealed.
E. Port 80 is open on the Web server.
Answer: E

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NO.10 Which files should be acquired from a Windows 2003 Server system crash with a Dr. Watson error?
A. drwtsn32.log
B. vmcore.log
C. core.log
D. memory.log
E. info.log
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 156-215.71
Exam Name: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator R71)
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Total Q&A: 563 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Which answers are TRUE? Automatic Static NAT CANNOT be used when:
i) NAT decision is based on the destination port
ii) Source and Destination IP both have to be translated
iii) The NAT rule should only be installed on a dedicated Gateway only
iv) NAT should be performed on the server side
A.(i), (ii), and (iii)
B.(i), and (ii)
C.ii) and (iv)
D.only (i)
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which port must be allowed to pass through enforcement points in order to allow packet logging to
operate correctly?
A.514
B.256
C.257
D.258
Answer: C

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NO.3 You run cpconfig to reset SIC on the Security Gateway.After the SIC reset operation is complete, the
policy that will be installed is the
A.Last policy that was installed
B.Default filter
C.Standard policy
D.Initial policy
Answer: D

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NO.4 Security Gateway R71 supports User Authentication for which of the following services? Select the
response below that contains the most complete list of supported services.
A.FTP, HTTP, TELNET
B.FTP, TELNET
C.SMTP, FTP, HTTP, TELNET
D.SMTP, FTP, TELNET
Answer: A

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NO.5 What can NOT be selected for VPN tunnel sharing?
A.One tunnel per subnet pair
B.One tunnel per Gateway pair
C.One tunnel per pair of hosts
D.One tunnel per VPN domain pair
Answer: D

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NO.6 Of the following, what parameters will not be preserved when using Database Revision Control?
1) Simplified mode Rule Bases
2) Traditional mode Rule Bases

NO.7 Which type of resource could a Security Administrator use to control access to specific file shares on
target machines?
A.URI
B.CIFS
C.Telnet
D.FTP
Answer: B

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NO.8 Manual NAT rules

NO.9 Phase 1 uses________.
A.Conditional
B.Sequential
C.Asymmetric
D.Symmetric
Answer: C

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NO.10 Gateway route table

NO.11 For which service is it NOT possible to configure user authentication?
A.HTTPS
B.FTP
C.SSH
D.Telnet
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following uses the same key to decrypt as it does to encrypt?
A.Asymmetric encryption
B.Symmetric encryption
C.Certificate-based encryption
D.Dynamic encryption
Answer: A

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NO.13 Blocked connections

NO.14 If you check the box Use Aggressive Mode in the IKE Properties dialog box, the standard:
A.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange Is replaced by a six-packet exchange
B.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a two-packet exchange
C.six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet exchange
D.three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange
Answer: C

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NO.15 Gateway licenses
A.3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
B.5, 6, 9, 12, 13
C.1, 2, 8, 10, 11
D.2, 4, 7, 10, 11
Answer: B

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3.You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners.Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A.SmartDashboard
B.SmartView Tracker
C.SmartUpdate
D.SmartView Status
Answer: C

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4.You are running a R71 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform, in case of a hardware failure.You have a
server with the exact same hardware and firewall version Installed.What backup method could be used to
quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A.Upgrade_export
B.Manual backup
C.Snapshot
D.Backup
Answer: C

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5.Your company is still using traditional mode VPN configuration on all Gateways and policies.Your
manager now requires you to migrate to a simplified VPN policy to benefit from the new features.
This needs to be done with no downtime due to critical applications which must run constantly.How would
you start such a migration?
A.This cannot be done without downtime as a VPN between a traditional mode Gateway and a simplified
mode Gateway does not work.
B.You first need to completely rewrite all policies in simplified mode and then push this new policy to all
Gateways at the same time.
C.This can not be done as it requires a SIC- reset on the Gateways first forcing an outage.
D.Convert the required Gateway policies using the simplified VPN wizard, check their logic and then
migrate Gateway per Gateway.
Answer: D

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6.What physical machine must have access to the User Center public IP address when checking for new
packages with smartUpdate?
A.SmartUpdate GUI PC
B.SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
C.A Security Gateway retrieving the new upgrade package
D.SmartUpdate installed Security Management Server PC
Answer: A

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7.In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
A.Blank field under Rule Number
B.Rule 0
C.Cleanup Rule
D.Rule 1
Answer: B

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8.The URL Filtering Policy can be configured to monitor URLs in order to:
A.Log sites from blocked categories.
B.Redirect users to a new URL.
C.Block sites only once.
D.Alert the Administrator to block a suspicious site.
Answer: A

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9.The Customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as security Management Server, and a third server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway.This is an Example of a (n):
A.Stand-Alone Installation.
B.Unsupported configuration
C.Distributed Installation
D.Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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10.You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an
internal Webserver that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address You have an unused valid IP address on
the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router.You control the router that sits between the
external interface of the firewall and the Internet.What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot
be used on your Security Gateway?
A.Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
B.Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall s external address.
C.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
Answer: B

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11.The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in global
properties.He managed to lock all of the administrators out of their accounts.How should you unlock these
accounts?
A.Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account, right click on administrator
object and select Unlock.
B.Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the command line of the Security Manager server.
C.Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.
D.Delete the file admin.lock in the $fwDIR/tmp/ directory of the Security Management server.
Answer: B

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12.You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host.You decide that you want to block everything
from that whole network, not just the problematic host.You want to block this for an hour while you
investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base.How do you achieve this?
A.Add a °t e m po r a r ¡± rule u si n g Sm a r t D ashbo ard an d s el e c t hi d e ru.
B.Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor
C.Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.
D.Select block intruder from the tools menu in SmartView Tracker.
Answer: B

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13.The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A.Session and Network layers
B.Application and Presentation layers
C.Physical and Data link layers
D.Network and Data link layers
Answer: D

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NO.16 SmartView Tracker traffic logs

NO.17 A rule _______ is designed to log and drop all other communication that does not match another rule?
A.Stealth
B.Cleanup
C.Reject
D.Anti-Spoofing
Answer: B

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NO.18 SIC certificates

NO.19 VPN communities

NO.20 A Web server behind the Security Gateway is set to Automatic Static NAT.Client side NAT is not
checked in the Global Properties.A client on the Internet initiates a session to the Web Server.Assuming
there is a rule allowing this traffic, what other configuration must be done to allow the traffic to reach the
Web server?
A.Automatic ARP must be unchecked in the Global Properties.
B.A static route must be added on the Security Gateway to the internal host.
C.Nothing else must be configured.
D.A static route for the NAT IP must be added to the Gateway's upstream router.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Implied Rules

NO.22 Which of these security policy changes optimize Security Gateway performance?
A.Use Automatic NAT rules instead of Manual NAT rules whenever possible
B.Putting the least-used rule at the top of the Rule Base
C.Using groups within groups in the manual NAT Rule Base
D.Using domain objects in rules when possible
Answer: A

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NO.23 IPS Profiles

NO.24 When configuring the network interfaces of a checkpoint Gateway, the direction can be defined as
Internal or external.
What is meaning of interface leading to DMZ?
A.It defines the DMZ Interface since this information is necessary for Content Control.
B.Using restricted Gateways, this option automatically turns off the counting of IP Addresses originating
from this interface
C.When selecting this option.Ann-Spoofing is configured automatically to this net.
D.Activating this option automatically turns this interface to External
Answer: A

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NO.25 SmartView Tracker audit logs

NO.26 Secure Platform WebUI Users

NO.27 An advantage of using central instead of local licensing is:
A.A license can be taken from one Security Management server and given to another Security
Management Server.
B.Only one IP address is used for all licenses.
C.Licenses are automatically attached to their respective Security Gateways.
D.The license must be renewed when changing the IP address of security Gateway.Each module s
license has a unique IP address.
Answer: B

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NO.28 Latency has lost SIC communication with her Security Gateway and she needs to re establish
SIC.What would be the correct order of steps needed to perform this task?
1) Create a new activation key on the Security Gateway, then exit cpconfig.
2) Click the Communication tab on the Security Gateway object, and then click Reset.
3) Run the cpconfig tool, and then select Secure Internal Communication to reset.
4) Input the new activation key in the Security Gateway object, and then click initialize
5) Run the cpconfig tool, then select source Internal Communication to reset.
A.5, 4, 1, 2
B.2, 3, 1, 4
C.2, 5, 1, 4
D.3, 1, 4, 2
Answer: B

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NO.29 You have created a rule Base Firewall, websydney.Now you are going to create a new policy package
with security and address transaction rules for a secured gateway.What is true about the new package s
NAT rules?
A.Rules 1 and 5 will be appear in the new package
B.Rules 1, 3, 4and 5 will appear in the new package
C.Rules 2, 3 and 4 will appear in the new package
D.NAT rules will be empty in the new package
Answer: C

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NO.30 While in Smart View Tracker, Brady has noticed some very odd network traffic that he thinks could be
an intrusion.He decides to block the traffic for 60 but cannot remember all the steps.What is the correct
order of steps needed to perform this?
1) Select the Active Mode tab In Smart view Tracker
2) Select Tools > Block Intruder
3) Select the Log Viewing tab in SmartView Tracker
4) Set the Blocking Time out value to 60 minutes
5) Highlight the connection he wishes to block
A.3, 2, 5, 4
B.3, 5, 2, 4
C.1, 5, 2, 4
D.1, 2, 5, 4
Answer: C

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NO.1 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003 server as the
SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform as both Security Management Server and
the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Unsupported configuration.
B. Hybrid Installation.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: D

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NO.2 UDP packets are delivered if they are _________.
A. A legal response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IP
B. A Stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN-/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IP
C. Reference in the SAM related Dynamic tables
D. Bypassing the Kernel by the forwarding layer
of clusterXL
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are a security architect and need to design a secure firewall, VPN and IPS solution. Where would
be the best place to install IPS in the topology if the internal network is already protected?
A. On the firewall itself to protect all connected networks centrally.
B. On each network segment separately.
C. On the LAN is enough, the DMZ does not need to be protected.
D. In front of the firewall is enough.
Answer: A

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NO.4 When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which
other Check Point architecture component?
A. SecureClient
B. Security Gateway
C. SmartConsole
D. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements is TRUE about management plug-ins?
A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.
B. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and
support for new products.
C. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of
the plug-in.
D. Installing a management plug-in is just like an upgrade process. (It overwrites existing components.)
Answer: B

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NO.6 Once installed, the R75 kernel resides directly below which layer of the OSI model? Note: Application
is the top and Physical is the bottom of the IP stack.
A. Network
B. Transport
C. Data Link
D. Session
Answer: A

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NO.7 R75's INSPECT Engine inserts itself into the kernel between which two layers of the OSI model?
A. Presentation and Application
B. Physical and Data
C. Session and Transport
D. Data and Network
Answer: D

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NO.8 During which step in the installation process is it necessary to note the fingerprint for first-time
verification?
A. When establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the Gateway
B. When configuring the Security Management Server using cpconfig
C. When configuring the Security Gateway object in SmartDashboard
D. When configuring the Gateway in the WebUl
Answer: B

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NO.9 When Jon first installed the system, he forgot to configure DNS servers on his Security Gateway.
How could Jon configure DNS servers now that his Security Gateway is in production?
A. Login to the firewall using SSH and run cpconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.
B. Login to the firewall using SSH and run fwm, then select System Configuration and Domain Name
Servers.
C. Login to the SmartDashboard, edit the firewall Gateway object, select the tab Interfaces, then Domain
Name Servers.
D. Login to the firewall using SSH and run sysconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.
Answer: D

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NO.10 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003 server as
SmartConsole and Security Management Server with a second server running SecurePlatform as
Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Hybrid Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are installing a Security Management Server. Your security plan calls for three administrators for
this particular server. How many can you create during installation?
A. Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server
B. Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C. One
D. As many as you want
Answer: C

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NO.12 How can you recreate the account of the Security Administrator, which was created during initial
installation of the Management Server on SecurePlatform?
A. Launch cpconfig and delete the Administrator's account. Recreate the account with the same name.
B. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an editor, and delete
the Administrator Account portion of the file. You will be prompted to create a new account.
C. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing Administrator's account name. Reset the Security
Administrator's password.
D. Launch SmartDashboard in the User Management screen, and delete the cpconfig administrator.
Answer: A

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NO.13 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as the
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as Security Management Server, and a third server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Stand-Alone Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Of the three mechanisms Check Point uses for controlling traffic, which enables firewalls to incorporate
layer 4 awareness in packet inspection?
A. IPS
B. Packet filtering
C. Stateful Inspection
D. Application Intelligence
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following statements about Bridge mode is TRUE.?
A. When managing a Security Gateway in Bridge mode, it is possible to use a bridge interface for Network
Address Translation.
B. Assuming a new installation, bridge mode requires changing the existing IP routing of the network.
C. All ClusterXL modes are supported.
D. A bridge must be configured with a pair of interfaces.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track remote administrative activities?
A. WebUI
B. Eventia Reporter
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.17 The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A. Session and Network layers
B. Application and Presentation layers
C. Physical and Datalink layers
D. Network and Datalink layers
Answer: D

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NO.18 How can you most quickly reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a Security
Management Server and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sic-reset to initialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the Security
Management Server. Then retype the activation key on the Security Gateway from SmartDashboard.
B. Use SmartDashboard to retype the activation key on the Security Gateway. This will automatically
Sync SIC to both the Security Management Server and Gateway.
C. From cpconfig on the Gateway, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and retype the
activation key. Next, retype the same key in the Gateway object in SmartDashboard and reinitialize
Secure Internal Communications (SIC).
D. From the Security Management Server s command line, Type fw putkey p <shared key> < IP Address
of security Gateway>.
Answer: C

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NO.19 The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one Linux Enterprise 3.0 server
working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management
Server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management Server and Security Gateway. This is an
example of a(n).
A. Stand-Alone Installation
B. Distributed Installation
C. Hybrid Installation
D. Unsupported configuration
Answer: D

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NO.20 You are running the Security Gateway on SecurePlatform and configure SNX with default settings. The
client fails to connect to the Security Gateway. What is wrong?
A. The routing table on the client does not get modified.
B. The client has Active-X blocked.
C. The client is configured incorrectly.
D. The SecurePlatform Web User Interface is listening on port 443.
Answer: D

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NO.1 You are a security architect and need to design a secure firewall, VPN and IPS
solution. Where would
be the best place to install IPS in the topology if the internal network is already protected?
A. On the firewall itself to protect all connected networks centrally.
B. On each network segment separately.
C. On the LAN is enough, the DMZ does not need to be protected.
D. In front of the firewall is enough.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Of the three mechanisms Check Point uses for controlling traffic, which enables
firewalls to incorporate
layer 4 awareness in packet inspection?
A. IPS
B. Packet filtering
C. Stateful Inspection
D. Application Intelligence
Answer: C

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NO.3 How can you most quickly reset Secure Internal Communications (SIC) between a
Security
Management Server and Security Gateway?
A. Run the command fwm sic-reset to initialize the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) of the
Security
Management Server. Then retype the activation key on the Security Gateway from
SmartDashboard.
B. Use SmartDashboard to retype the activation key on the Security Gateway. This will
automatically
Sync SIC to both the Security Management Server and Gateway.
C. From cpconfig on the Gateway, choose the Secure Internal Communication option and
retype the
activation key. Next, retype the same key in the Gateway object in SmartDashboard and
reinitialize
Secure Internal Communications (SIC).
D. From the Security Management Server s command line, Type fw putkey p <shared key> <
IP Address
of security Gateway>.
Answer: C

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NO.4 How can you recreate the account of the Security Administrator, which was created
during initial
installation of the Management Server on SecurePlatform?
A. Launch cpconfig and delete the Administrator's account. Recreate the account with the
same name.
B. Export the user database into an ASCII file with fwm dbexport. Open this file with an
editor, and delete
the Administrator Account portion of the file. You will be prompted to create a new account.
C. Type cpm -a, and provide the existing Administrator's account name. Reset the Security
Administrator's password.
D. Launch SmartDashboard in the User Management screen, and delete the cpconfig
administrator.
Answer: A

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NO.5 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003
server as
SmartConsole and Security Management Server with a second server running
SecurePlatform as
Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Hybrid Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.6 During which step in the installation process is it necessary to note the fingerprint for
first-time
verification?
A. When establishing SIC between the Security Management Server and the Gateway
B. When configuring the Security Management Server using cpconfig
C. When configuring the Security Gateway object in SmartDashboard
D. When configuring the Gateway in the WebUl
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are installing a Security Management Server. Your security plan calls for three
administrators for
this particular server. How many can you create during installation?
A. Depends on the license installed on the Security Management Server
B. Only one with full access and one with read-only access
C. One
D. As many as you want
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which SmartConsole component can Administrators use to track remote administrative
activities?
A. WebUI
B. Eventia Reporter
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartView Tracker
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are running the Security Gateway on SecurePlatform and configure SNX with
default settings. The
client fails to connect to the Security Gateway. What is wrong?
A. The routing table on the client does not get modified.
B. The client has Active-X blocked.
C. The client is configured incorrectly.
D. The SecurePlatform Web User Interface is listening on port 443.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following statements is TRUE about management plug-ins?
A. The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.
B. A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new
features and
support for new products.
C. Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to
specific features of
the plug-in.
D. Installing a management plug-in is just like an upgrade process. (It overwrites existing
components.)
Answer: B

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NO.11 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP
workstation as the
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as Security Management Server, and a third
server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Stand-Alone Installation.
B. Unsupported configuration
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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NO.12 R75's INSPECT Engine inserts itself into the kernel between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A. Presentation and Application
B. Physical and Data
C. Session and Transport
D. Data and Network
Answer: D

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NO.13 Once installed, the R75 kernel resides directly below which layer of the OSI model?
Note: Application
is the top and Physical is the bottom of the IP stack.
A. Network
B. Transport
C. Data Link
D. Session
Answer: A

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NO.14 The customer has a small Check Point installation, which includes one Linux
Enterprise 3.0 server
working as the SmartConsole, and a second server running Windows 2003 as both Security
Management
Server running Windows 2003 as both Security Management Server and Security Gateway.
This is an
example of a(n).
A. Stand-Alone Installation
B. Distributed Installation
C. Hybrid Installation
D. Unsupported configuration
Answer: D

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NO.15 The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two
layers of the
OSI model?
A. Session and Network layers
B. Application and Presentation layers
C. Physical and Datalink layers
D. Network and Datalink layers
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which of the following statements about Bridge mode is TRUE.?
A. When managing a Security Gateway in Bridge mode, it is possible to use a bridge
interface for Network
Address Translation.
B. Assuming a new installation, bridge mode requires changing the existing IP routing of the
network.
C. All ClusterXL modes are supported.
D. A bridge must be configured with a pair of interfaces.
Answer: D

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NO.17 When Jon first installed the system, he forgot to configure DNS servers on his
Security Gateway.
How could Jon configure DNS servers now that his Security Gateway is in production?
A. Login to the firewall using SSH and run cpconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.
B. Login to the firewall using SSH and run fwm, then select System Configuration and
Domain Name
Servers.
C. Login to the SmartDashboard, edit the firewall Gateway object, select the tab Interfaces,
then Domain
Name Servers.
D. Login to the firewall using SSH and run sysconfig, then select Domain Name Servers.
Answer: D

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NO.18 When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management
Server with which
other Check Point architecture component?
A. SecureClient
B. Security Gateway
C. SmartConsole
D. None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself
Answer: B

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NO.19 The customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows 2003
server as the
SmartConsole and a second server running SecurePlatform as both Security Management
Server and
the Security Gateway. This is an example of a(n):
A. Unsupported configuration.
B. Hybrid Installation.
C. Distributed Installation.
D. Stand-Alone Installation.
Answer: D

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NO.20 UDP packets are delivered if they are _________.
A. A legal response to an allowed request on the inverse UDP ports and IP
B. A Stateful ACK to a valid SYN-SYN-/ACK on the inverse UDP ports and IP
C. Reference in the SAM related Dynamic tables
D. Bypassing the Kernel by the forwarding layer
of clusterXL
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CAT-160
Exam Name: CA (CA SiteMinder r12 Administrator Exam)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-31

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NO.1 Virtual user attributes are prefixed with:
A. !
B. /
C. #
D. @
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which assumption does CA SiteMinder make about a user directory by default.?
A. A user will be audited against the same directory.
B. A user will be authorized against the same directory.
C. A user will be authenticated against the same directory.
D. A user will be authenticated AND authorized against the same directory.
Answer: B

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NO.3 If you are an administrator, but not a superuser administrator, you can: (Choose two)
A. Create superuser administrators
B. Access CA SiteMinder objects, tools, and features
C. Change rules, policies, and responses in various domains
D. Instruct the Policy Server to set upa default administrator account
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: CAT-280
Exam Name: CA (CA AppLogic r3 Administrator Exam)
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NO.1 Before removing a server from the grid or replacing a hard disk, to retrieve any virtual volume
streams off the server, which command should you run?
A. vol clean
B. vol scoop
C. vol migrate
D. vol reinstate
Answer: C

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NO.2 You need to enable your grid servers to PXE boot on the Backbone Fabric Controller (BFC)
network.
Which steps do you need to perform? (Choose two)
A. In System Security, set AC power recovery to OFF.
B. On the power controller setup screen, set IPMI over LAN to off.
C. In the boot settings, enable the backbone NIC to boot before the disk.
D. Enable backbone Network Interface Cards (NICs) to PXE boot in the BIOS.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 When you configure authentication for the Backbone Fabric Controller (BFC):
A. Make sure that all users access the BFC using the BFC shell only.
B. Make sure that the bfcaadmin user has read-only access to the database replica directory.
C. Do not change the default root
password, because this is required for a correct configuration.
D. Add any necessary public SSH keys for users that will access the BFC to the /root/.ssh
/authorized_keys
file.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which step should you perform when you provision the WS_API?
A. Edit the input_template.cfg file.
B. To configure the application, start it immediately after you provision it.
C. Run the vol manage ws_api_instance:data command and edit the vdcs.conf file.
D. When prompted for a password for Secure Shell (SSH) access, enter ws_api_usr.
Answer: C

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NO.5 In CA AppLogic, a class definition consists of a class descriptor and one or more class volumes.
What does a class volume contain?
A. A reference to a storage Logical Unit Number (LUN)
B. All the software required to boot and operate an instance of this class
C. A reference to the IP address or host name of the commodity server on which the object is stored
D. The characteristics of the appliance as a component, including its inputs, outputs, configuration
properties, and their default values and hardware resources
Answer: B

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NO.6 The WS_API enables you to perform useful functions, such as:
A. Migrating users from CA AppLogic versions before r3.0.
B. Implementing a WebX4 Linux cluster as an assembly of appliances.
C. Integrating CA AppLogic with CA Access Control to protect your web applications.
D. Invoking commands through the RESTful application programming interface (API).
Answer: D

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NO.7 In CA AppLogic, which component is used to implement a distributed storage subsystem that
combines the advantages of a global file system with an object store?
A. Global Disk Array (GDA)
B. Global Storage Pool (GSP)
C. Global Access Cache (GAC)
D. Global Volume Store (GVS)
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 CA AppLogic is able to:
A. Automatically recover from VN failures with zero downtime.
B. Manage all applications, servers, and storage with an iPad application.
C. Handle server or network hardware failures automatically without data loss.
D. Manage external systems, such as Storage Area Networks (SANs), networks, and grids to redirect
failed applications elsewhere.
Answer: C

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NO.9 The Backbone Fabric Controller (BFC) should be accessible to all users who will be creating
grids or maintaining the BFC. You should allocate one RFC1918 range to use for backbone addresses.
Which range is valid for this purpose?
A. 12.64.0.0/8
B. 30.128.0.0/32
C. 142.120.0.0/16
D. 192.168.64.0/24
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which guidelines will help you to maximize security for the CA AppLogic platform? (Choose
three)
A. Secure private keys with a passphrase.
B. Ensure that only CA AppLogic users have direct access to commodity enterprise servers.
C. When using a global directory service, do not provide access to the implicit local group all .
D. When using a global directory service, check the strength of the passwords used in the service.
E. Use password authentication only for Secure Shell (SSH) access to the Backbone Fabric Controller
(BFC) server.
Answer: A,C,D

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