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Exam Code: ICBB
Exam Name: IASSC (IASSC Certified Lean Six Sigma Black Belt)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 300 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Following the completion of a LSS project the Belt not only creates a Control Plan he also
develops a _____________ so those involved in the process know what to do when the critical
metrics move out of spec.
A. Response Plan
B. Call List
C. Chain-of-Command
D. Defect Analysis Plan
Answer: A

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NO.2 Common and ______________ Cause Variation are the focus of Statistical Process Control.
A. Uncommon
B. Ordinary
C. Special
D. Selective
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of these graphs demonstrates conditions which would be sufficient to enable OCAP for
the
process?
A. Xbar Chart
B. Time Series Chart
C. Neither
D. Both
Answer: A

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NO.4 Special Cause Variation falls into which two categories?
A. Natural & Unnatural
B. Short Term & Long Term
C. Assignable & Pattern
D. Attribute & Discreet
Answer: C

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NO.5 If the production is for higher volume and monitoring and the Mean and variability is to be
monitored for four machines producing product and the characteristic to be monitored is Variable
Data, which SPC Chart is best to be selected?
A. Xbar-R Chart
B. Individual-MR Chart
C. NP Chart
D. CUSUM Chart
Answer: A

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NO.6 For her injection molding project a Belt needed to track the percentage of defectives of a
particular
sample set so she used a ___________ to display the data?
A. Individual Chart
B. C Chart
C. Xbar Chart
D. P Chart
Answer: D

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NO.7 When a Belt Poka-Yoke’s a defect out of the process entirely then she should track the activity
with a robust SPC system on the characteristic of interest in the defect as an early warning
system.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.8 A ___________ is used primarily to track the stability of the average value of a metric of
interest.
A. NP Chart
B. Xbar-R Chart
C. I-MR Chart
D. C Chart
Answer: B

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NO.9 Control Charts were developed by Dr. Shewhart to track data over time. To detect Special
Cause
variation the Control Charts use which of these?
A. Data shift analysis
B. Outlier analysis methods
C. Center Line and Control Limits
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.10 Range Charts are the technique used to determine if Special Causes are occurring within the
subgroups of the ______________.
A. Histograms
B. SPC Charts
C. NP Charts
D. Pareto Charts
Answer: B

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Exam Code: CCB-400
Exam Name: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Specialist in Apache HBase)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Under default settings, which feature of HBase ensures that data won't be lost in the event of
a Region Server failure?
A. AllHBase activity is written to the WAL, which is stored in HDFS
B. All operations are logged on theHMaster.
C. HBase is ACID compliant, which guarantees that itis Durable.
D. Data is stored on the local filesystem of the RegionServer.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have one primary HMaster and one standby. Your primary HMaster Falls fails and your
client application needs to make a metadata change.
Which of the following is the effect on your client application?
A. The client will queryZooKeepertofind the location of the new HMaster and complete the
metadata change.
B. The client will make the metadata change regardless of the slate of the HMaster.
C. The new HMaster will notify the client and complete the metadata change.
D. Theclientapplication will fail with a runtime error.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You have an average key-value pair size of 100 bytes.
Your primary access is random needs on the table.
Which of the following actions will speed up random reading performance on your cluster?
A. Turn off WAL on puts
B. Increase the number of versions kept
C. Decrease the block size
D. Increase the block size
Answer: D

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NO.4 The cells in a given row have versions that range from 1000 to 2000. You execute a delete
specifying the value 3000 for the version.
What is the outcome?
A. The delete fails with an error.
B. Only cells equal to the Specified version are deleted.
C. The entire row is deleted.
D. Nothing in the row is deleted.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have an "Employees" table in HBase. The Row Keys are the employees' IDs. You would like
to retrieve all employees who have an employee ID between 'user_100' and 'user_110'.
The shell command you would use to complete this is:
A. scan'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', STOPROW =>'user_111'}
B. get'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', STOPROW =>'user_110'}
C. scan'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', SLIMIT => 10}
D. scan'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', STOPROW =>'user_110'}
Answer: D

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Exam Code: IQ0-100
Exam Name: AIIM (Certified Information Professional Examination)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Corporate information governance is most likely to be successful when
A. Departments develop and manage their own governance.
B. Information governance is developed prior to solution deployments.
C. IT directs, manages, and oversees governance.
D. Information governance is developed after solution deployments.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A social media team should have representatives from which of the following areas? (Choose 3)
A. Executive Management
B. Information Technology
C. Financial Management
D. Records Management
E. Administrative Services
F. Communications
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.3 A common characteristic of folksonomies is that they
A. Are somewhat slow to develop because of the initial planning required.
B. Arise in hierarchical environments where administrators can oversee them.
C. Feature strong bibliographic control provided by their formal structure.
D. Provide an opportunity for collaborative classification by multiple users.
Answer: D

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NO.4 An organization has just released a new. completely redesigned website. The website bounce rate has
increased by 20 percent over the previous site's. The website manager suspects the issue results from
confusion caused by the new website's structure, layout and/or visual cues. The best recommendation is
to start investigating by doing
A. A/B testing.
B. Multivariate testing.
C. Usability testing,
D. Conversion testing.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Metadata types used for information management include which of the following? (Choose 3)
A. Descriptive
B. Foundational
C. Structural
D. Core
E. Administrative
F. Elementary
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 What is the primary purpose of a legal hold?
A. To distribute notification of the legal obligation to prevent destruction or modification of any information
relevant to a lawsuit
B. To collect and export for review any information that pertains to a lawsuit or governmental investigation
C. To collect information based on keyword searches defined by legal counsel in the event of a
preservation notice
D. To prevent the modification or destruction of documents and electronically-stored information (ESI)
relevant to a lawsuit or governmental investigation
Answer: D

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NO.7 In which of the following is a user's navigation through an information space guided and structured by
the activities of others within that space?
A. Site map navigation
B. Social navigation
C. Link-based navigation
D. Breadcrumb navigation
Answer: B

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NO.8 Vital records are defined as records that are fundamental to the functioning of an organization and are
necessary to continue operations during
A. Normal circumstances.
B. An external audit.
C. Extraordinary conditions.
D. Litigation.
Answer: C

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NO.9 The purpose of conducting a knowledge audit is to (Choose 2)
A. Identify knowledge assets, resources, and locations,
B. Resolve organizational and cultural knowledge issues,
C. Develop enhanced knowledge management solutions,
D. Determine the organization's knowledge needs.
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 A means to capture, monitor, and leverage intellectual capital within communities of practice is known
as
A. Information Sharing
B. Knowledge Management
C. Information Transference
D. Knowledge Delivery
Answer: B

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NO.11 A statement of work (SOW) for an information management project is intended to
A. Define the scope of the project,
B. Provide project reporting.
C. Identify return on investment.
D. Identify what is to be delivered.
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 Which of the following is the best basis for documenting costs and benefits of an Information
Management (IM) solution?
A. Project cost, current storage cost, estimated savings
B. Business impact, software and project cost, increased revenue
C. Number of months to realize financial benefits, estimated rate of return
D. Payback period, net present value, internal rate of return
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following is the most accurate description of tiered storage?
A. The setup of a file structure that determines where information is placed to provide added security and
long-term storage
B. The export of inactive or fixed-content information to paper or media for long-term storage
C. Location of information based on record type, active/inactive content and the type of media required for
storage
D. The assignment of data based on levels of protection, performance requirements, and frequency of
use
Answer: D

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NO.14 An organization seeks to maintain its information in an unalterable state. Which of these technologies is
best suited to meet this requirement?
A. Public key infrastructure
B. Write once read many
C. Private key infrastructure
D. Redacting annotation
Answer: B

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NO.15 What type of information should be collected when conducting a data inventory? (Choose 2)
A. Data location
B. Date of the next inventory
C. Owner of the data
D. Data policies
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: PEGACBA001
Exam Name: Pegasystems (PRPC v6.1 Certified Business Architect Written Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 101 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 When an Application Profile and Application Accelerator process is started, they both create
actual
PRPC work objects that keep track of the choices made and can be saved.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about Declarative Expression rules? (Choose two.)
A. They can perform a computation
B. They can constrain a property to a range of values.
C. They can execute an Activity upon creation of a work object.
D. They can display the result of a Decision table
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which of the following statuses is the standard default status assigned to all new work
objects?
A. Open
B. New
C. Resolved-Completed
D. Start
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following tools can be used to create one or more properties with a common
Applies
To class?
A. Application Explorer
B. Define Property Wizard
C. PAL
D. Class Explorer
Answer: B

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NO.5 Service level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose two.)
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Why do Pegasystems best practices suggest limiting flow rules to 15 SmartShapes? (Excluding
Connectors, Notify, Comment, Pool, Swimlane, and Router shapes)
A. Flows with more than 15 shapes cannot be printed
B. More than 15 SmartShapes in one flow rule may result in performance issues
C. In order to improve readability, maintainability, and ease in traceability when debugging the
application processes
D. Flows with more than 15 SmartShapes cannot be updated
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two statements are true about work covers and covered work objects? (Choose three.)
A. A covered work object can belong to many work folders
B. Work covers can be nested within other work objects
C. Work covers can become a parent to one or more related work objects
D. Work covers can be resolved automatically when all covered work objects belonging to that
cover are resolved
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 The Application Accelerator can be utilized without first creating an Application Profile in the
Application Profile wizard.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.10 What does "Build For Change(r)" mean?
A. Build applications without change control, in order to complete projects more quickly
B. Launch applications as soon as possible so that performance testing can be done in Production
C. Build applications that are more easily adaptable due to inevitable business change
D. Business architects initially build PRPC applications and system architects subsequently
change them
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M70-201
Exam Name: Magento (Magento Certified Developer Plus Exam )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 131 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which three of the following conditions are used to protect an admin route via ACL? (Choose three)
A. You have defined an ACL in your module configuration
B. At least one admin role must have permission for that route
C. You have extended the controller from Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
D. You have defined a method _is Allowed which checks the permission
E. The route name must start with admin
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Which one of the following statements is true regarding Mage_Core_Block_Text_List?
A. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List declares its own template for rendering, but the rendered template can be
overridden via layout XML.
B. Child blocks of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List are always rendered alphabetically by name.
C. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List will always render all children automatically when it is rendered.
D. Mage_Core_Block_Text_List directly extends Mage_Core_Block_Template
E. In order to render, the parent block of Mage_Core_Block_Text_List must always be an output block.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following block methods is the best to override when there is a need to customize how the
block's html is rendered?
A. _toHtml()
B. toHtmlO
C. setLayout ()
D. renderLayout ()
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the purpose of Catalog Target rules?
A. To extend Catalog Price Rules to be used for related products.
B. To provide a mechanism for rendering a list of additional products on the product page.
C. To provide a mechanism for rendering a list of custom product options.
D. To provide a mechanism for easier selection options for configurable products.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which statement correctly describes order state and order status?
A. State and status are independent properties of the order.
B. The status is a child of the state.
C. State represents the general state of the order, while status works on item level.
D. An order doesn't have a status, only a state. Status is a property of an invoice, shipment, and credit
memo.
Answer: B

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NO.6 With which three kinds of product relations do Magento Catalog Target Rules deal? (Choose three)
A. The relations between a configurable product and its child products
B. The relations between a bundle product and its child products
C. The relations among products linked as cross-sell products
D. The relations between a product and its custom options
E. The relations among products linked as related products
F. The relations among products linked as upsell products
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.7 What type of Magento class is an API resource?
A. Controller
B. Helper
C. Model
D. Resource model
Answer: C

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NO.8 A custom frontend controller will extend which one of the following classes?
A. Mage_Core_Controller_Front_Action
B. Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
C. Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Front
D. Mage_Core_Controller_Abstract
Answer: A

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NO.9 When changes are made to more than one of a collection's items using setData( 'some', 'value'), which
of the following methods will save the changes in the collection?
A. $collection->saveAll();
B. $collection->saveItems ();
C. $collection->saveAllItems ()?
D. $collection->save();
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which one of the following xpaths is correct for replacing Mage_Customer_Model_Custom_Address via
Mage::helper ('customer/address')?
A. Global/customer/helpers/address
B. Global/rewrite/helpers/rewrite/address
C. Global/helpers/customer/rewrite/address
D. Global/helpers/rewrite/customer_address
E. Global/helpers/rewrite/customer/address
Answer: C

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NO.11 When $ this ->load Layout (' foo_bar_baz') is called in a standard front action, what is the effect on the
layout update object instance?
A. foo_bar_baz will be the only handle added
B. loadLayout () does not take any arguments, so there is no effect
C. Only two handles will be added: foo_bar_baz and default
D. Foo_bar_baz will be added instead of the default handle
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following actions will enable logging via calls to debugData() on a native Magento
payment method model?
A. Set the protected property $_debug of the payment model to true
B. Set the config node default/payment/debug/ [method code] to 1
C. Call Mage::register ('payment_method_debug_' . [method code], true);
D. Set the config node default/payment/ [method code]/debug to 1
E. Call setDebug(true) on the payment method model
Answer: D

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NO.13 When setData (' some', 'value') is called on an EAV entity and the entity is saved to the database,
A. The 'value' of the attribute named 'some' is saved in the eav_values table
B. The 'value' of the attribute named ' some' is saved in one of the entity's tables depending on its
datatype (for example, entityname_varchar)
C. The data will be stored in the EAV registry making ' some' 'value' available to the entity
D. The 'value' of the attribute named T some' is saved in the eav attribute values table
Answer: B

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NO.14 To implement a standard Adminhtml form for a custom data model, which two of the following must you
do? (Choose two)
A. Declare your module's block class prefix in the config.xml file.
B. Implement a sub-class of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Widget_Form.
C. Implement a sub-class of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Form_Abstract.
D. Create sub-classes of Mage_Adminhtml_Block_Form_Element_Abstract for each form field to be
presented.
E. Add a set of configuration values in the module's config-xml defining the form fields to be displayed.
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 What is the difference in the effect of calling the invoice capture () method versus the invoice pay ()
method?
A. No difference: pay () will always call capture ().
B. Pay () will trigger the payment and capture!) will not.
C. Capture () will trigger the payment and pay () will not.
D. The difference is determined by the payment method implementation.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which three of the following object types will have a parent class found in the Mage_Eav module for the
purposes of EAV data storage in Magento? (Choose three)
A. Data model
B. Data helper
C. Resource model
D. Resource collection
E. Setup class
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.17 Which kind of class is responsible for calculating the actual amount of reward points in every case?
A. Reward model (Enterprise_Reward_Model_Reward)
B. Action model (derivatives from Entet:prise_Reward_Model_Action)
C. Event model (derivatives from Enterprise_Reward_Model_Event)
D. Calculation model (Enterprise_Reward_Model_Calculator)
Answer: B

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NO.18 Applying the shopping cart rule's action affects the quote item by setting the quote item's
_______________.
A. base_price and price properties with the discounted price
B. base_discount_amount and discount_amount with the discount applied to the original price
C. base_row_total and cow_total properties with the discounted price
D. base_price_incl_tax and price_incl_tax properties with the discounted price
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following API calls allows you to fetch the list of related products using the native
Magento API?
A. catalog_product_link.list, with arguments $type='related', $product_id
B. catalog_product.list, with arguments $type='related', $product_id
C. catalog_product_related.list, with argument $product_id
D. catalog_product_option.list, with arguments $type='related', $product_id
Answer: A

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NO.20 In what order are the routers from the Magento core checked for a matching route?
Default: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Default
CMS: Mage_Cms_Controller_Router
Standard: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Standard
Admin: Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Router_Admin
A. Admin, Standard, CMS, Default
B. Default, CMS, Standard, Admin
C. Admin, CMS, Standard, Default
D. Standard, Admin, Default, CMS
Answer: A

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Exam Code: CTFL-UK
Exam Name: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL_UK))
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Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide
evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT
an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

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NO.2 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.3 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing
needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not
always applicable in other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting
back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1
credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A.(i) and (ii)
B.(i) and (iv)
C.(ii) and (iii)
D.(ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring
& diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see
addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

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NO.6 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the
project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management.
1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist.
Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be
achieved
Answer: D

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NO.8 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

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Exam Name: ASQ (Quality Engineer Exam)
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Total Q&A: 162 Questions and Answers
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NO.1 Benchmarking might be defined as any of the following EXCEPT:
A. A process for rigorously measuring your performance versus the best-in-class companies.
B. A standard of excellence or achievement against which other similar things must be measured
orjudged.
C. Comparing the performance of one company to a set of standards and then to
another'sperformance.
D. The search for best industry practices that lead to superior performance.
Answer: C

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NO.2 In most cases, an improvement team facilitator will NOT normally:
A. Be familiar with problem solving techniques.
B. Provide feedback to the group.
C. Function as the group leader.
D. Summarize key ideas generated by the group.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What are the major disadvantages of having an improvement team that is too large?
. Difficulty in having constructive input from the entire group.
. Difficulty in arriving at consensus.
. Difficulty in finding large meeting facilities.
. Difficulty, on the part of the recorder, in keeping up with more paperwork.
A. Ionly
B. IandIIonly
C. I,IIandIIIonly
D. I, II,IIIandIV
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT considered a prevention cost?
A. Writing operating procedures.
B. Training.
C. Data acquisition and analysis.
D. Calibrating test equipment.
Answer: D

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NO.5 During the building phase of improvement team development, which of the following properly
describes team activities?
. The team leader is usually directive.
. The team leader often delegates tasks.
. Team members prioritize and perform duties.
. Team members are uncertain of their duties.
A. IIandIIIonly
B. I,IIandIIIonly
C. IandIV only
D. II,IIIandIV only
Answer: C

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NO.6 An improvement in quality costs is MOST clearly indicated when:
A. Appraisal and failure costs drop.
B. Prevention costs increase.
C. Total quality costs fall below 15% of total sales.
D. Management objectives are met.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Information that is received by upper management, is often distorted. Which of the following
actions is effective in countering this problem?
. Stop killing the messenger.
. Establishing an open door policy.
. Practice management by walking around.
A. Ionly
B. IandIIonly
C. IandIIIonly
D. I,IIandIII
Answer: D

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NO.8 The ideal results of a quality training effort would NOT include which of the following?
A. Increased cost-of-quality results.
B. Improved working methods and morale.
C. Increased productivity and job satisfaction.
D. Reduced defects and employee turn-over.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following is the BEST method to developing materials for a training program on
the
gaps in performance?
A. Secure a workshop trainer.
B. Review a record of activities.
C. Set up a one shot case study.
D. Allocate employees for training.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following quality gurus was very critical of merit-pay and individual bonuses?
He discouraged management by objectives and the ranking of employees by performance.
A. Dr. Juran
B. Dr. Deming
C. Dr. Taguchi
D. Dr. Feigenbaum
Answer: B

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